NEW 2025 Certification Sample Questions Cloud-Deployment-and-Operations Dumps & Practice Exam
Cloud-Deployment-and-Operations Deluxe Study Guide with Online Test Engine
NEW QUESTION # 30
(Which type of support plan provides a technical account manager and full use of Trusted Advisor?)
- A. Standard
- B. Business
- C. Developer
- D. Enterprise
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Enterprise support plan provides a technical account manager (TAM) and full use of Trusted Advisor, offering proactive guidance and comprehensive access to all checks. This plan is designed for large-scale, mission-critical workloads. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 6.4, AWS Support Plans) states, "The Enterprise support plan includes a dedicated Technical Account Manager and full Trusted Advisor access, providing 24/7 support and proactive optimization recommendations." Developer, Standard, and Business plans offer limited or no TAM support and partial Trusted Advisor access.
NEW QUESTION # 31
(A company configures the CloudFront caching TTL to the following settings: Min: 0, Max: 172800. An administrator updates the Cache-Control setting to 432000. However, objects are only cached for 48 hours.
What is required to ensure objects are cached for up to 120 hours?)
- A. Configure the Min setting for 432000
- B. Configure the expiration setting for 172800
- C. Configure the Cache-Control setting for 172800
- D. Configure the Max setting for 432000
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
In Amazon CloudFront, the caching TTL is controlled by the minimum and maximum TTL settings, with the maximum TTL (in seconds) capping the cache duration. The current Max TTL is 172800 seconds (48 hours), and the Cache-Control setting of 432000 seconds (120 hours) is ignored because it exceeds the Max TTL. To cache objects for up to 120 hours, the Max setting must be configured to 432000 seconds. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.4, CloudFront Caching) states, "The maximum TTL in CloudFront settings (e.g., 172800 seconds) overrides any higher Cache-Control value; to allow 120 hours (432000 seconds), the Max TTL must be set accordingly." Adjusting Min, expiration, or Cache-Control alone does not resolve this.
NEW QUESTION # 32
(What is the role of a patch baseline in Patch Manager?)
- A. Assigns an IAM role for services that can auto-approve patches upon release
- B. Notifies Config of any patch updates that need to be performed
- C. Defines patches that should and should not be installed on EC2 instances
- D. Installs all patch updates as they become available by default
Answer: C
Explanation:
A patch baseline in Patch Manager defines the patches that should and should not be installed on EC2 instances, specifying approval rules for security updates, other updates, and exclusions. This ensures controlled and compliant patching. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 5.2, Patch Manager) states, "A patch baseline specifies which patches are approved for installation and which are excluded, allowing customization of patch deployment (e.g., approving only critical security updates)." Options A, B, and D misrepresent the baseline's role, as it does not auto-install, assign IAM roles, or notify Config directly.
NEW QUESTION # 33
(An administrator successfully accesses an EC2 instance via SSH from a local computer then stops it and starts it. Following the restart, the EC2 instance is no longer accessible. Which solution should be used to resolve the issue?)
- A. Add a route to the route table associated with the EC2 instance subnet
- B. Change the IP address used to connect to the EC2 instance
- C. Change the port used to connect to EC2 instance
- D. Add a rule to the security group associated with the NIC of the EC2 instance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
After stopping and starting an EC2 instance, the public IP address may change (unless an Elastic IP is attached), but the security group rules remain intact. If the instance is no longer accessible via SSH, it's likely due to an inbound rule (e.g., for port 22) not being correctly configured or applied. Adding or verifying a rule in the security group associated with the network interface (NIC) to allow SSH (port 22) from the administrator's IP resolves this. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.2, Security Groups) states, "Stopping and starting an EC2 instance may require verifying or adding an inbound SSH rule (port 22) in the security group if connectivity is lost due to IP or rule misconfiguration." Route table or IP changes are not the primary issue here.
NEW QUESTION # 34
(Which two retention periods are supported by Performance Insights? Choose 2 answers.)
- A. 7 days
- B. 2 years
- C. 1 year
- D. 1 day
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Amazon RDS Performance Insights supports retention periods of 7 days and 1 year for storing performance data, depending on the configuration and edition. The default retention is 7 days for standard monitoring, while enabling enhanced monitoring or the Performance Insights extended retention feature allows data to be retained for up to 1 year. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 7.2, Performance Insights) states, "Performance Insights offers a 7-day retention period by default, with an option to extend to 1 year for detailed historical analysis, supporting cost and performance optimization." Options A (1 day) and D (2 years) are not supported retention periods.
NEW QUESTION # 35
(Which AWS solution can be used to send events from Shopify?)
- A. IoT Events
- B. EventBridge
- C. Service events
- D. CloudTrail events
Answer: B
Explanation:
Amazon EventBridge is the AWS solution that can be used to send events from external sources like Shopify.
EventBridge supports integration with third-party applications through its event bus, allowing custom events (e.g., from Shopify via webhooks) to be ingested and routed to AWS services or targets. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.3, EventBridge) notes that EventBridge is designed for event ingestion from SaaS applications, making it suitable for Shopify integration. CloudTrail, IoT Events, and Service events are not designed for this purpose.
NEW QUESTION # 36
(A company has the following disaster recovery requirements: The loss of up to three hours of data is acceptable. Services must be restored within one hour of failure. Which recovery characteristics will allow the company to meet the requirements?)
- A. RPO 1 hour, RTO 2 hours
- B. RPO 2 hours, RTO 1 hour
- C. RPO 4 hours, RTO 1 hour
- D. RPO 1 hour, RTO 4 hours
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Recovery Point Objective (RPO) measures the maximum acceptable data loss, while Recovery Time Objective (RTO) measures the maximum acceptable downtime. The company requires an RPO of up to 3 hours (acceptable data loss) and an RTO of 1 hour (service restoration time). The correct option is RPO 4 hours, RTO 1 hour, as it meets the RPO requirement (allowing up to 3 hours of data loss is within 4 hours) and satisfies the RTO of 1 hour. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 8.1, Disaster Recovery) states, "RPO defines the maximum data loss tolerance (e.g., 3 hours), and RTO defines the maximum downtime (e.g., 1 hour); a configuration of RPO 4 hours and RTO 1 hour aligns with these thresholds." Other options fail to meet both criteria simultaneously.
NEW QUESTION # 37
(Media files are stored in an S3 bucket in region A. Demand for the files from region B has increased. Region B is suffering from some latency issues due to geographical location. Which type of replication will reduce the latency in region B?)
- A. S3 Batch
- B. Cross-Region
- C. Same-Region
- D. S3 Versioning
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
To reduce latency in region B due to increased demand for media files stored in region A, cross-region replication (CRR) should be used. CRR replicates objects to an S3 bucket in another region (e.g., region B), allowing users to access files from a closer location, thus minimizing latency. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 2.2, S3 Replication) states, "Cross-Region Replication in S3 copies objects to a destination bucket in a different region, reducing latency by enabling access to data from the nearest region, such as region B in this case." S3 Batch, S3 Versioning, and Same-Region replication do not address cross-region latency.
NEW QUESTION # 38
(Which solution sends DNS queries to separate AWS compute instances?)
- A. Amazon CloudWatch
- B. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
- C. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
- D. Amazon Route 53
Answer: D
Explanation:
Amazon Route 53 is the AWS solution that sends DNS queries to separate AWS compute instances by leveraging routing policies to distribute traffic across multiple resources. It acts as a scalable Domain Name System (DNS) service, directing queries to healthy instances based on configurations like latency or weighted routing. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.1, Route 53) states, "Route 53 uses DNS to route end-user requests to multiple AWS compute instances, supporting features like health checks and traffic distribution." Elastic Beanstalk, CloudWatch, and EC2 Auto Scaling do not perform DNS query routing.
NEW QUESTION # 39
(An administrator sets up a route table with the default outbound route via an internet gateway and links it to a VPC. Which solution should be used to ensure the route takes effect?)
- A. Configure tags
- B. Create an edge association
- C. Configure propagation
- D. Create a subnet association
Answer: D
Explanation:
To ensure the route table with a default outbound route via an internet gateway takes effect, the administrator must create a subnet association, linking the route table to specific subnets within the VPC. This association applies the routing rules to the subnet's traffic. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.2, VPC Routing) states, "A route table must be associated with a subnet (subnet association) to enforce routing rules, such as the default route to an internet gateway, ensuring outbound traffic follows the defined path." Propagation, tags, and edge associations do not activate the route.
NEW QUESTION # 40
(An administrator is unable to make an AMI public. What is the cause?)
- A. Paravirtual virtualization is used
- B. Boot volume is encrypted
- C. Legacy BIOS boot mode is used
- D. Bookmark is absent
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The inability to make an AMI public is caused by an encrypted boot volume. AWS does not allow AMIs with encrypted EBS snapshots to be shared publicly due to security constraints; sharing is limited to specific AWS accounts. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 6.3, AMI Management) states,
"An AMI cannot be made public if its boot volume is encrypted; encryption restricts sharing to authorized accounts only, requiring decryption keys to be managed separately." Legacy BIOS, paravirtual virtualization, and the absence of a bookmark do not impact AMI sharing.
NEW QUESTION # 41
(Which service should be used to horizontally scale Amazon EC2 instances?)
- A. Elastic IPs
- B. Elastic network interface
- C. Elastic Beanstalk
- D. Elastic Load Balancing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) should be used to horizontally scale Amazon EC2 instances by distributing incoming traffic across multiple instances, improving availability and fault tolerance. ELB works in conjunction with Auto Scaling groups to add or remove instances based on demand. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.2, Elastic Load Balancing) notes, "Elastic Load Balancing distributes traffic across EC2 instances, enabling horizontal scaling as part of an Auto Scaling group to handle increased load efficiently." Elastic IPs, elastic network interfaces, and Elastic Beanstalk do not provide this scaling functionality.
NEW QUESTION # 42
(An administrator sees the following VPC flow log: 2 123456739010 eni-123bfecad12529 192.168.20.1
203.0.113.66 2066 22 20 7782 1645859356 1645859536 ACCEPT OK. What does the log indicate about the traffic flow?)
- A. Traffic from 203.0.113.66 to 192.168.20.1 with a destination port of 2066 has been permitted.
- B. Traffic from 203.0.113.66 to 192.168.20.1 with a source port of 22 has been permitted.
- C. Traffic from 192.168.20.1 to 203.0.113.66 with a source port of 2066 has been permitted.
- D. Traffic from 192.168.20.1 to 203.0.113.66 with a destination port of 2066 has been permitted.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The VPC flow log fields indicate the following: the source IP is 192.168.20.1, the destination IP is
203.0.113.66, the source port is 2066, the destination port is 22, and the action is "ACCEPT OK," meaning the traffic was permitted. This shows outbound traffic from the internal network (192.168.20.1) to an external IP (203.0.113.66) with destination port 2066. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.2, VPC Flow Logs) states, "In a flow log, the format includes source IP, destination IP, source port, destination port, and action; for example, 192.168.20.1 to 203.0.113.66 with source port 2066 and destination port 22 indicates permitted outbound traffic." Only option C correctly interprets this flow.
NEW QUESTION # 43
(An administrator needs to troubleshoot a connectivity issue from on-premises computers to public IP addresses assigned to EC2 instances. The administrator suspects the cause to be a network security group.
Which VPC feature should be used to troubleshoot the issue?)
- A. Reachability Analyzer
- B. PrivateLink
- C. Traffic Mirroring
- D. Flow Logs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The Reachability Analyzer in AWS VPC should be used to troubleshoot connectivity issues from on-premises computers to EC2 instances, especially when a network security group (NSG) is suspected. It analyzes the network path and identifies blocked traffic due to NSG rules or route tables. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.2, VPC Troubleshooting) states, "Reachability Analyzer helps diagnose connectivity issues by simulating traffic paths, identifying if an NSG rule (e.g., blocked port) or route table is causing the problem from on-premises to EC2 public IPs." Flow Logs provide data but not analysis, PrivateLink is for private connections, and Traffic Mirroring is for monitoring.
NEW QUESTION # 44
(Which AWS service is used to provide remote workers with secure access to AWS resources?)
- A. Network Firewall
- B. Transit Gateway
- C. Client VPN
- D. NAT instance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
AWS Client VPN is used to provide remote workers with secure access to AWS resources by establishing a VPN connection to the VPC, ensuring encrypted access to private networks. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.2, Client VPN) states, "Client VPN enables secure remote access to AWS resources within a VPC, using mutual authentication and encryption to protect data for remote workers." Transit Gateway manages inter-VPC routing, Network Firewall filters traffic, and NAT instances handle outbound internet access, none of which are designed for remote worker access.
NEW QUESTION # 45
(Which feature should be configured to deploy a static website to AWS?)
- A. Bucket properties
- B. RDS Proxy
- C. CloudTrail events
- D. S3 Versioning
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
To deploy a static website to AWS, the bucket properties of an Amazon S3 bucket should be configured, specifically enabling static website hosting. This involves setting the bucket policy to allow public read access and configuring the index and error documents. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 2.1, S3 Static Website Hosting) states, "Configuring bucket properties for static website hosting in S3 involves enabling the website endpoint, setting an index document (e.g., index.html), and applying a bucket policy for public access, making it suitable for hosting static content." RDS Proxy, S3 Versioning, and CloudTrail events are not relevant to this use case.
NEW QUESTION # 46
(Which performance optimization method must be used when uploading files larger than 5 GB to S3?)
- A. Multipart uploads
- B. Intelligent-Tiering
- C. Glacier Select
- D. Transfer Acceleration
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multipart uploads must be used when uploading files larger than 5 GB to Amazon S3, as this method splits the file into smaller parts for parallel upload, improving reliability and performance. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 2.1, S3 Uploads) states, "For files exceeding 5 GB, multipart upload is required in S3, allowing the file to be divided into parts (minimum 5 MB each) for concurrent uploads, ensuring efficient and resumable transfers." Glacier Select, Transfer Acceleration, and Intelligent-Tiering are not designed for this upload optimization.
NEW QUESTION # 47
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