Reliable CDIP Dumps Questions Available as Web-Based Practice Test Engine [Q40-Q63]

Reliable CDIP Dumps Questions Available as Web-Based Practice Test Engine

Correct and Up-to-date AHIMA CDIP BrainDumps

NEW QUESTION # 40
A patient falls off a ladder and undergoes a right femur procedure. Three weeks later, the patient returns to the hospital for removal of the external fixation device. The ICD-10-CM 7th character code value should indicate

• A. initial
• B. subsequent
• C. aftercare
• D. sequela

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The ICD-10-CM 7th character code value should indicate aftercare for a patient who falls off a ladder and undergoes a right femur procedure, and then returns to the hospital for removal of the external fixation device.
Aftercare codes are used to capture encounters for follow-up care after completed treatment of an injury or condition, such as removal of external fixation devices, casts, or pins. Aftercare codes are not used for subsequent encounters for complications or infections related to the injury or condition5 References: 1:
https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf 5:
https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077

NEW QUESTION # 41
A 27-year-old male patient presents to the emergency room with crampy, right lower quadrant abdominal pain, a low-grade fever (101° Fahrenheit) and vomiting. The patient also has a history of type I diabetes mellitus. A complete blood count reveals mild leukocytosis (13,000/microliter). Abdominal ultrasound is ordered, and the patient is admitted for laparoscopic surgery. The patient is given an injection of neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin, in order to normalize the blood sugar level prior to surgery. Upon discharge, the attending physician documents "right lower quadrant abdominal pain due to possible acute appendicitis or probable Meckel diverticulitis".
What is the proper sequencing of the principal and secondary diagnoses?

• A. Right lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, vomiting, leukocytosis
• B. Right lower quadrant abdominal pain, acute appendicitis, Meckel diverticulitis, fever, vomiting, leukocytosis
• C. Acute appendicitis, right lower quadrant abdominal pain, type I diabetes mellitus
• D. Acute appendicitis, Meckel diverticulitis, type I diabetes mellitus

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The proper sequencing of the principal and secondary diagnoses in this case is as follows:
Principal diagnosis: Acute appendicitis. This is the condition, after study, that occasioned the admission to the hospital, according to the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting. The patient was admitted for laparoscopic surgery, which is a definitive treatment for acute appendicitis. The physician documented "possible acute appendicitis or probable Meckel diverticulitis" as the cause of the right lower quadrant abdominal pain. According to the AHA's Coding Clinic, Fourth Quarter 2016, pp.
147-148, when a physician documents two diagnoses connected by "or", coders should query the physician for clarification if possible. However, if a query is not possible or not answered, coders should assign codes for both conditions, unless one of them has been ruled out or confirmed by further testing or treatment. In this case, there is no indication that either acute appendicitis or Meckel diverticulitis has been ruled out or confirmed by further testing or treatment. Therefore, both conditions should be coded and reported. However, only one of them can be the principal diagnosis. Since acute appendicitis is more commonly associated with laparoscopic surgery than Meckel diverticulitis, and since it has a higher relative weight than Meckel diverticulitis under the MS-DRG system, it is reasonable to select acute appendicitis as the principal diagnosis 23.
Secondary diagnosis: Right lower quadrant abdominal pain. This is a sign or symptom that is associated with the principal diagnosis and requires clinical evaluation, therapeutic treatment, diagnostic procedures, extended length of hospital stay, or increased nursing care and/or monitoring. The patient presented with right lower quadrant abdominal pain as a manifestation of acute appendicitis or Meckel diverticulitis. The pain required clinical evaluation by abdominal ultrasound and therapeutic treatment by laparoscopic surgery. Therefore, it should be coded and reported as a secondary diagnosis 4.
Secondary diagnosis: Type I diabetes mellitus. This is a chronic condition that affects the patient's care in terms of requiring diagnostic or therapeutic services or affecting patient outcomes or resource utilization. The patient has a history of type I diabetes mellitus and received an injection of neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin to normalize the blood sugar level prior to surgery. Therefore, it should be coded and reported as a secondary diagnosis 4.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 2: ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 2021, Section II.A 3: AHA Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM and ICD-10-PCS, Fourth Quarter 2016 4: ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 2021, Section III.C : AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077

NEW QUESTION # 42
When benchmarking with outside organizations, the clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) must determine if the organization is benchmarking with which of the following criteria?

• A. Hospital within its region
• B. Hospitals that are its peers
• C. Hospital within its state
• D. Hospital within its county

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
When benchmarking with outside organizations, the clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) must determine if the organization is benchmarking with hospitals that are its peers because peer hospitals have similar characteristics such as size, location, teaching status, case mix index, and payer mix. Benchmarking with peer hospitals allows for a more accurate and meaningful comparison of performance indicators and outcomes. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2

NEW QUESTION # 43
A clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) identified the need to correct a resident physician's note in a patient health record that wrongly identified the organism causing the patient's pneumonia. What is best practice for fixing this mistake according to AHIMA?

• A. Errors are corrected by the clinician who authored the documentation
• B. Amendments to record content must be co-signed by the attending physician
• C. Coders can rely on the laboratory results to confirm the patient's diagnosis
• D. Any physician caring for the patient can correct inaccurate record notes

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
According to AHIMA, best practice for fixing a mistake in a patient health record is that errors are corrected by the clinician who authored the documentation1. The clinician who made the error should identify and correct the inaccurate information, and document the date, time, and reason for the correction1. The correction should also be made in a way that preserves the original content and does not obscure or delete it1. The other options are not correct according to AHIMA. Any physician caring for the patient cannot correct inaccurate record notes, as this may compromise the accountability and integrity of the documentation2. Amendments to record content do not need to be co-signed by the attending physician, unless required by organizational policy or state law3. Coders cannot rely on the laboratory results to confirm the patient's diagnosis, as they should code based on the physician's documentation and not on test results alone. References:
Making Corrections in the Electronic Health Record - AHIMA
Auditing Copy and Paste - AHIMA
Amendments, Corrections, and Deletions in Transcribed Reports Toolkit - AHIMA
[Coding from Test Results | Journal Of AHIMA]

NEW QUESTION # 44
A noncompliant query includes querying the provider regarding

• A. sepsis that was present on admission because sepsis was only documented in the discharge summary
• B. gram-negative pneumonia on every pneumonia case, regardless of documented clinical indicators
• C. acute blood loss anemia due to low hemoglobin treated with iron supplements
• D. morbid obesity due to BMI of 40.9 documented on the history and physical

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
A noncompliant query includes querying the provider regarding gram-negative pneumonia on every pneumonia case, regardless of documented clinical indicators because it may lead to over-specification of a diagnosis that is not supported by the health record. A compliant query should be based on the clinical evidence and documentation in the record, and should not suggest or imply a diagnosis that is not clinically relevant or plausible. A query should also not be driven by reimbursement or coding factors, but by the need to improve the quality and accuracy of documentation. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update)3

NEW QUESTION # 45
When there are comparative contrasting diagnoses supported by clinical criteria, the correct action is to

• A. code both diagnoses
• B. not code either diagnosis
• C. code the first condition listed
• D. query for clarification

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
When there are comparative contrasting diagnoses supported by clinical criteria, the correct action is to code both diagnoses, as long as they are not mutually exclusive. Comparative contrasting diagnoses are those that are considered as possible alternatives or differentials for the patient's condition, such as pneumonia versus bronchitis, or appendicitis versus diverticulitis. Coding both diagnoses will capture the clinical uncertainty and complexity of the case, and will allow for accurate reporting and reimbursement. References: :
https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf :
https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077

NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following demonstrates the relative severity and complexity of patient treated in the hospital, and is used to evaluate the financial impact of a hospital's clinical documentation integrity (CDI) program?

• A. Hospital acquired conditions
• B. Present on admission indicators
• C. Adjusted case mix index
• D. Program for evaluating payment patterns electronic report

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, the adjusted case mix index (CMI) is a measure that demonstrates the relative severity and complexity of patients treated in a hospital, and is used to evaluate the financial impact of a hospital's clinical documentation integrity (CDI) program1. The adjusted CMI is calculated by multiplying the unadjusted CMI by a factor that accounts for the percentage of Medicare patients in the hospital2. The higher the adjusted CMI, the higher the expected reimbursement per patient, and the more effective the CDI program is assumed to be3. The other options are not correct because they do not measure the severity and complexity of patients or the financial impact of CDI. Hospital acquired conditions (HACs) are conditions that are not present on admission and are considered preventable by CMS, and may result in reduced reimbursement or penalties4. The program for evaluating payment patterns electronic report (PEPPER) is a report that provides hospital-specific data on potential overpayments or underpayments for certain services or diagnoses, and helps identify areas of risk or opportunity for improvement. Present on admission (POA) indicators are codes that indicate whether a condition was present at the time of admission or acquired during the hospital stay, and affect the assignment of DRGs and HACs. References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide - AHIMA
Demystifying and communicating case-mix index - ACDIS
What is Case Mix Index? | The Importance of CMI
Hospital-Acquired Conditions (HACs) | CMS
[PEPPER Resources]
[Present on Admission Reporting Guidelines - CMS]

NEW QUESTION # 47
A patient is admitted for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation. The patient is on 3L of home oxygen and is treated during admission with 3L of oxygen. The most appropriate action is to

• A. query the provider to see if respiratory insufficiency is supported by the health record
• B. query the provider to see if chronic respiratory failure is supported by the health record
• C. query the provider to see if acute on chronic respiratory failure is supported by the health record
• D. code the diagnoses of COPD exacerbation and chronic respiratory failure

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA/ACDIS Query Practice Brief, one of the scenarios that warrants a query is when there is clinical evidence of a higher degree of specificity or severity1. In this case, the patient's COPD exacerbation and oxygen therapy may indicate a higher level of respiratory impairment than chronic respiratory failure alone. Therefore, a query to the provider to see if acute on chronic respiratory failure is supported by the health record is appropriate and compliant. Acute on chronic respiratory failure is a more specific and severe diagnosis that may affect the patient's severity of illness, risk of mortality, and reimbursement2. The other options are not correct because they either assume a diagnosis without querying the provider, or query for a less specific or severe diagnosis than what the clinical indicators suggest.
References:
Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA Q&A: Respiratory failure in a drug overdose | ACDIS

NEW QUESTION # 48
The ultimate purpose of clinical documentation integrity (CDI) expansion and growth is to

• A. provide community education to healthcare consumers
• B. create synergy between clinical education and CDI principles
• C. promote CDI functions so that physicians view the CDI staff as value-added service
• D. show a direct relationship between clinical documentation and quality patient care

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The ultimate purpose of clinical documentation integrity (CDI) expansion and growth is to show a direct relationship between clinical documentation and quality patient care. According to the web search results, CDI programs aim to improve the quality and efficiency of clinical documentation by ensuring that it is accurate, complete, and consistent. This in turn leads to better health care data, which is vital for capturing the appropriate indicators used for health care facility and provider profiling, reimbursement, risk adjustment, and quality scores12. CDI programs also focus on patient safety, by identifying and resolving any documentation omissions, discrepancies, or adverse events that may affect the patient's outcome or care3. Therefore, CDI programs demonstrate how clinical documentation can impact the quality of patient care and the performance of health care organizations.

NEW QUESTION # 49
For inpatients with a discharge principal diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction, aspirin must be taken within
24 hours of arrival unless a contraindication to aspirin is
documented. How should this be documented in the health record?

• A. The name of the medication (aspirin), the date and location where it was last administered
• B. The name of the medication (aspirin), the date and time it was last administered
• C. The name of the medication (aspirin) and the date it was last administered
• D. The name of the medication (aspirin), the date, time and location where it was last administered

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The name of the medication (aspirin), the date, time and location where it was last administered should be documented in the health record for inpatients with a discharge principal diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction, unless a contraindication to aspirin is documented. This is because aspirin is a core measure for acute myocardial infarction patients, and its administration within 24 hours of arrival is an indicator of quality of care and patient safety. The date, time and location are important to verify that the medication was given within the specified timeframe and to avoid duplication or omission of doses4 References: 1:
https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf 4:
https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077

NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following sources provide external benchmarks to examine the effectiveness of a facility's clinical documentation program?

• A. Health Care Financing Administration
• B. Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality
• C. American Health Information Management Association
• D. Medicare Provider Analysis and Review

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) provides external benchmarks to examine the effectiveness of a facility's clinical documentation program by developing and disseminating quality indicators (QIs) that measure various aspects of health care quality, such as patient safety, outcomes, efficiency, and effectiveness. These QIs are based on administrative data and can be used to compare the performance of different health care providers or facilities across the nation. The QIs include inpatient quality indicators (IQIs), patient safety indicators (PSIs), prevention quality indicators (PQIs), and pediatric quality indicators (PQIs). These QIs can help clinical documentation improvement (CDI) programs identify areas of improvement, monitor trends, and evaluate the impact of CDI interventions on health care quality 2.
References: 1: Clinical Documentation Improvement Programs: Quality, Efficiency | Deloitte US Analysis 2 2:
AHRQ Quality Indicators 3

NEW QUESTION # 51
A 45-year-old female is admitted after sustaining a femur fracture. Orthopedics is consulted and performs an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) of the femur without complication. Nursing documents the patient has a body mass index of 42 kg/m2. The clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) determines a query is needed to capture a diagnosis associated with the body mass index so it can be reported. Which of the following is the MOST compliant query based on the most recent AHIIMA/ACDIS query practice brief?

• A. Nursing documents the BMI is 42 kg/m2. In order to capture a co-morbid condition (CC) to increase reimbursement, please add 'morbid obesity with BMI 42 kg/m2' to your next progress note.
• B. Nursing documents the BMI is 42 kg/m2. Can you please clarify if the patient's morbid obesity was present on admission and add the diagnosis to future progress notes?
• C. Nursing documents the BMI is 42 kg/m2. Please consider if any of the following diagnoses should be added to the health record to support this finding: morbid obesity; obesity; other diagnosis (please state)
• D. Nursing documents the BMI is 42 kg/m2. To increase the severity of illness and risk of mortality, please add 'morbid obesity with BMI 42 kg/m2' to your next progress note.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
This is the most compliant query based on the most recent AHIMA/ACDIS query practice brief because it is non-leading, non-suggestive, and provides multiple options for the physician to choose from. It also does not imply any financial or quality implications for adding a diagnosis associated with the BMI.
References: AHIMA/ACDIS. "Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update)." Journal of AHIMA 90, no. 2 (February 2019): 20-29.

NEW QUESTION # 52
The clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) performed a verbal query and then later neglected following up with the provider. How should the CDIP avoid a compliance risk for this follow up failure according to AHIMA's Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice?

• A. Complete the documentation at the end of the day when entering cases reviewed
• B. Complete the documentation at the time of discussion or immediately following
• C. Complete the documentation immediately after the provider's response
• D. Complete the documentation when there is a provider agreement

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
According to AHIMA's Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice, the clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) should complete the documentation at the time of discussion or immediately following to avoid a compliance risk for this follow up failure. This is because verbal queries are considered part of the health record and must be documented in a timely and accurate manner to reflect the provider's response and any changes in documentation or coding. Completing the documentation later or only when there is an agreement may result in errors, omissions, inconsistencies, or delays that may affect the quality and integrity of the health record and the query process. (AHIMA Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice1) References:
AHIMA Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice1

NEW QUESTION # 53
The correct coding for heart failure with preserved ejection fraction is

• A. 150.32 Chronic diastolic (congestive) heart failure
• B. I50.30 Unspecified diastolic (congestive) heart failure
• C. I50.20 Unspecified systolic (congestive) heart failure
• D. I50.9 Heart failure, unspecified

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 2023, heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) is also known as diastolic heart failure or heart failure with normal ejection fraction1. The code category for diastolic heart failure is I50.3-, which includes unspecified diastolic (congestive) heart failure (I50.30), acute diastolic (congestive) heart failure (I50.31), chronic diastolic (congestive) heart failure (I50.32), and acute on chronic diastolic (congestive) heart failure (I50.33)1. If the documentation does not specify the acuity of the diastolic heart failure, the default code is I50.301. Therefore, the correct coding for heart failure with preserved ejection fraction is I50.30.
References:
ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 20231

NEW QUESTION # 54
Besides the physician advisor/champion, who should be included as a key stakeholder in the clinical documentation integrity (CDI) steering committee to promote CDI initiatives?

• A. Manager of Surgical Services
• B. Director of Risk Management
• C. Manager of HIM/Coding
• D. Director of Informatics

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The manager of HIM/Coding should be included as a key stakeholder in the clinical documentation integrity (CDI) steering committee to promote CDI initiatives because they are responsible for overseeing the coding and billing processes, ensuring compliance with coding guidelines and regulations, and collaborating with the CDI team to resolve coding and documentation discrepancies. The manager of HIM/Coding can also provide feedback on the CDI program's impact on coding quality, accuracy, productivity, and reimbursement. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2

NEW QUESTION # 55
The clinical documentation integrity (CDI) manager has noted a query response rate of 60%. The CDI practitioner reports that physicians often respond verbally to the query. What can be done to improve this rate?

• A. Require physicians to document responses in charts
• B. Permit CDI practitioners to document physician responses in the charts
• C. Allow physician to respond via e-mail
• D. Have CDI manager teaming with coding supervisor to monitor physician responses

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA/ACDIS Query Practice Brief, one of the best practices for a compliant query process is to require physicians to document their responses to queries in the health record1. This ensures that the documentation is consistent, accurate, and complete, and that the query and response are part of the permanent record. Verbal responses are not acceptable, as they do not provide a clear audit trail and may lead to errors or discrepancies in coding and billing1. Therefore, the CDI manager should educate the physicians on the importance of documenting their responses in the charts and monitor their compliance. The other options are not recommended, as they may compromise the integrity of the documentation or violate the query guidelines1. References:
Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA

NEW QUESTION # 56
A 100-year-old female presents to the emergency department with altered mental state and a 3-day history of productive cough, shortness of breath, and fever after a witnessed aspiration 3 days ago. The patient lives in custodial care at a nearby skilled nursing facility. Patient was treated with Augmentin at the facility without improvement. Exam is notable for Tc 38.9, blood pressure 142/78, respiratory rate 28, pulse 91. There is accessory muscle use with breathing.
Patient is moaning and disoriented but
otherwise the neurologic exam is nonfocal.
Labs notable for sodium 126, creatinine 0.5. white blood count 17.5, hemoglobin 13, platelet 200. venous blood gas 7.44/32/45/-3 Chest x-ray shows bilateral lower lobe infiltrates and dense right lower lobe consolidation.
Patient is placed on bilevel positive airway pressure and given vancomycin, pip/tazo, levofloxacin.
Discharge Diagnosis: health care associated pneumonia (HCAP), respiratory distress, altered mental status, low sodium Which list of diagnoses require a post-discharge query that will result in a more specific principal diagnosis with the highest level of severity of illness and risk of mortality?

• A. Aspiration pneumonia, hyponatremia, septic encephalopathy, and sepsis with acute hypoxemic respiratory failure
• B. Coma, stroke, HCAP, hypernatremia
• C. Severe sepsis, hypernatremia, delirium, pneumonia
• D. Sepsis with acute hypoxemic respiratory failure, hyponatremia, pneumonia

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
A post-discharge query is needed to obtain a more specific principal diagnosis with the highest level of severity of illness (SOI) and risk of mortality (ROM) for this patient. The discharge diagnosis of health care associated pneumonia (HCAP) is not specific enough to capture the etiology, site, and severity of the pneumonia. Based on the clinical indicators in the case scenario, such as the history of aspiration, the chest x-ray findings, the elevated white blood count, the fever, and the antibiotic treatment, a more specific diagnosis of aspiration pneumonia would be appropriate. Aspiration pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that occurs when foreign material, such as food or vomit, is inhaled into the lungs, causing inflammation and infection. Aspiration pneumonia has a higher SOI and ROM than HCAP because it is associated with more complications and poorer outcomes 1.
Additionally, the discharge diagnosis of altered mental status is vague and does not reflect the underlying cause or severity of the condition. Based on the clinical indicators in the case scenario, such as the fever, the low sodium level, the moaning and disorientation, and the venous blood gas results, a more specific diagnosis of septic encephalopathy would be appropriate. Septic encephalopathy is a type of delirium that occurs when sepsis affects the brain function, causing confusion, agitation, or reduced consciousness. Septic encephalopathy has a higher SOI and ROM than altered mental status because it indicates a systemic inflammatory response and multi-organ dysfunction 2.
Furthermore, the discharge diagnosis of respiratory distress is also vague and does not reflect the underlying cause or severity of the condition. Based on the clinical indicators in the case scenario, such as the shortness of breath, the accessory muscle use, the respiratory rate, and the bilevel positive airway pressure treatment, a more specific diagnosis of acute hypoxemic respiratory failure would be appropriate. Acute hypoxemic respiratory failure is a type of respiratory failure that occurs when there is insufficient oxygen exchange in the lungs, causing low oxygen levels in the blood. Acute hypoxemic respiratory failure has a higher SOI and ROM than respiratory distress because it indicates a life-threatening condition that requires mechanical ventilation or oxygen therapy 3.
Finally, based on the clinical indicators in the case scenario, such as the fever, the elevated white blood count, and the antibiotic treatment, a diagnosis of sepsis should also be included in the query. Sepsis is a serious complication of infection that occurs when the body's immune system overreacts to an infection and causes widespread inflammation and organ damage. Sepsis has a high SOI and ROM because it can lead to septic shock or death if not treated promptly 4.
Therefore, a post-discharge query should ask the provider to confirm or rule out aspiration pneumonia, hyponatremia (low sodium level), septic encephalopathy, and sepsis with acute hypoxemic respiratory failure as possible diagnoses for this patient. These diagnoses would result in a more specific principal diagnosis with the highest level of SOI and ROM for this patient.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) Aspiration Pneumonia - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics1 Septic Encephalopathy - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics2 Acute Hypoxemic Respiratory Failure - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics3 Sepsis - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic4

NEW QUESTION # 57
Proposed changes to the inpatient prospective payment system (IPPS) take effect on

• A. July 1
• B. January 1
• C. April 1
• D. October 1

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Proposed changes to the inpatient prospective payment system (IPPS) take effect on October 1 of each fiscal year (FY), which begins on October 1 and ends on September 30 of the next calendar year. The IPPS final rule is usually issued by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) around August 1 of each year, and it updates the Medicare payment policies and rates for acute care hospitals and long-term care hospitals for the upcoming FY. The effective date of the final rule is October 1, unless otherwise specified by CMS 2.
References: 1: Inpatient Prospective Payment System (IPPS) 2023 Final Rule Summary of ... 3 2: Acute Inpatient PPS | CMS 1

NEW QUESTION # 58
A hospital noticed a 30% denial rate in Medicare claims due to lack of clinical documentation, placing the hospital at risk of multiple Medicare violations. What step should the clinical documentation integrity (CDI) manager take to help avoid future Medicare violations?
Collaborate with physician advisor/champion and revenue cycle manager
Instruct the billing department to write off claims with insufficient documentation

• A. Prevent submission of claims for improper documentation
• B. Assign pre-billing claim review duties to physicians

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The step that the clinical documentation integrity (CDI) manager should take to help avoid future Medicare violations is to collaborate with physician advisor/champion and revenue cycle manager. The physician advisor/champion can help with educating and engaging the physicians on the importance and impact of clinical documentation on coding, reimbursement, quality measures, compliance, and patient care. The revenue cycle manager can help with analyzing and monitoring the denial trends and patterns, identifying and resolving the root causes of denials, implementing corrective actions and preventive measures, and ensuring timely and accurate claim submission and appeal processes. References: :
https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf :
https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077

NEW QUESTION # 59
A patient was admitted with complaints of confusion, weakness, and slurred speech. A CT of the head and MRI were performed and resulted in normal findings. Daily aspirin was administered and a speech therapy evaluation was conducted. The final diagnosis on discharge was transient ischemic attack, and cerebrovascular disease was ruled out. What is the correct diagnostic related group assignment?

• A. 948 Signs and Symptoms without MCC
• B. 069 Transient Ischemia
• C. 093 Other Disorders of Nervous System without CC/MCC
• D. 066 Intracranial Hemorrhage or Cerebral Infarction without CC/MCC

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a neurological event with the signs and symptoms of a stroke, but which go away within a short period of time. TIA is assigned to DRG 069, which is a medical DRG. Cerebrovascular disease was ruled out, so it cannot be coded as a secondary diagnosis. The other options are incorrect because they do not reflect the principal diagnosis of TIA.

NEW QUESTION # 60
A patient has a history of asthma and presents with complaints of fever, cough, general body aches, and lethargy. The patient's child was recently diagnosed with influenza. Wheezing is heard on exam. The physician documents the diagnosis as asthma exacerbation and orders nebulizer treatments of Albuterol and a 5-day course of oral Prednisone. The clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) is unsure which signs and symptoms are inherent to asthma. Which reference resource should be used to obtain this information?

• A. Medical Dictionary
• B. AMA CPT Assistant
• C. The Merck Manual
• D. Physician's Desk Reference

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The reference resource that should be used to obtain information about the signs and symptoms that are inherent to asthma is The Merck Manual. This is a comprehensive medical reference that covers various topics related to diseases, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention. The Merck Manual provides a detailed description of asthma, including its causes, risk factors, pathophysiology, clinical features, diagnosis, management, and complications. According to The Merck Manual, the signs and symptoms that are inherent to asthma are wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and dyspnea (shortness of breath) 2. These symptoms are caused by the reversible bronchoconstriction and inflammation of the airways that characterize asthma. The Merck Manual also explains how these symptoms can be triggered or exacerbated by various factors, such as allergens, infections, exercise, cold air, stress, or medications 2.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 3 2: Asthma - Pulmonary Disorders - Merck Manuals Professional Edition 4

NEW QUESTION # 61
A patient was admitted due to possible pneumonia. Chest x-ray was positive for infiltrate. The physician's documentation indicates that the patient continues to smoke cigarettes despite recommendations to quit. Patient also has a long-term history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) due to smoking. IV antibiotic was given for pneumonia along with oral Prednisone and Albuterol for COPD.
Discharge diagnoses:
1. Pneumonia
2. COPD
3. Current smoker
What is the correct diagnostic related group assignment?

• A. DRG 204 Respiratory Signs and Symptoms
• B. DRG 194 Simple Pneumonia and Pleurisy without CC/MCC
• C. DRG 190 Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease with MCC
• D. DRG 202 Bronchitis and Asthma with CC/MCC

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the ICD-10-CM/PCS MS-DRG Definitions Manual, DRG 190 is assigned for patients with a principal diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and a major complication or comorbidity (MCC)1. Pneumonia is considered an MCC for this DRG2. Therefore, the patient in this case meets the criteria for DRG 190. The other options are incorrect because they do not match the principal diagnosis or the MCC of the patient.
ICD-10-CM/PCS MS-DRG Definitions Manual
ICD-10-CM/PCS MS-DRG v38.0 Definitions Manual - MDC 4: Diseases and Disorders of the Respiratory System

NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following committees should determine the chain of comnfand that will be used to manage physicians who are either unresponsive or uncooperative with the clinical documentation integrity (CDI) program?

• A. Operations
• B. Compliance
• C. Communications
• D. Oversight

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The oversight committee is responsible for establishing the policies, procedures, and guidelines for the CDI program, as well as monitoring its performance and outcomes. The oversight committee should include representatives from senior leadership, medical staff, coding, quality, compliance, and other relevant stakeholders. The oversight committee should determine the chain of command that will be used to manage physicians who are either unresponsive or uncooperative with the CDI program, as well as the consequences for non-compliance. The other committees are not directly involved in setting the chain of command or the disciplinary actions for the CDI program. The communications committee is responsible for facilitating the information flow and feedback among the CDI staff, providers, coders, and other departments. The operations committee is responsible for managing the day-to-day activities and functions of the CDI staff, such as staffing, training, productivity, and workflow. The compliance committee is responsible for ensuring that the CDI program adheres to the ethical and legal standards and regulations, such as query compliance, documentation integrity, and privacy and security.

NEW QUESTION # 63
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