312-38 PDF Dumps Real 2021 Recently Updated Questions [Q102-Q124]

312-38 PDF Dumps Real 2021 Recently Updated Questions

Released EC-COUNCIL 312-38 Updated Questions PDF

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EC-Council 312-38 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details	Weights
Network Security Controls, Protocols, and Devices	- Understanding fundamental elements of network security - Explaining network access control mechanism - Understanding different types of access controls - Explaining network Authentication, Authorization and Auditing (AAA) mechanism - Explaining network data encryption mechanism - Describing Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) - Describing various network security protocols - Describing various network security devices	8%
Data Backup and Recovery	- Understanding data backup - Describing the data backup plan - Describing the identification of data to backup - Determining the appropriate backup medium for data backup - Understanding RAID backup technology and its advantages - Describing RAID architecture - Describing various RAID levels and their use - Selection of appropriate RAID level - Understanding Storage Area Network (SAN) backup technology and its advantages - Best practices of using SAN - Understanding Network Attached Storage (NAS) backup technology and its advantages - Describing various types of NAS implementation	9%
Computer Network and Defense Fundamentals	- Understanding computer network - Describing OSI and TCP/IP network Models - Comparing OSI and TCP/IP network Models - Understanding different types of networks - Describing various network topologies - Understanding various network components - Explaining various protocols in TCP/IP protocol stack - Explaining IP addressing concept - Understanding Computer Network Defense (CND) - Describing fundamental CND attributes - Describing CND elements - Describing CND process and Approaches	5%
Secure Firewall Configuration and Management	- Understanding firewalls - Understanding firewall security concerns - Describing various firewall technologies - Describing firewall topologies - Appropriate selection of firewall topologies - Designing and configuring firewall ruleset - Implementation of firewall policies - Explaining the deployment and implementation of firewall - Factors to considers before purchasing any firewall solution - Describing the configuring, testing and deploying of firewalls - Describing the management, maintenance and administration of firewall implementation - Understanding firewall logging - Measures for avoiding firewall evasion - Understanding firewall security best practices	8%
Wireless Network Defense	- Understanding wireless network - Discussing various wireless standards - Describing various wireless network topologies - Describing possible use of wireless networks - Explaining various wireless network components - Explaining wireless encryption (WEP, WPA,WPA2) technologies - Describing various authentication methods for wireless networks - Discussing various types of threats on wireless networks - Creation of inventory for wireless network components - Appropriate placement of wireless Access Point (AP) - Appropriate placement of wireless antenna - Monitoring of wireless network traffic - Detection and locating of rogue access points - Prevention of wireless network from RF interference - Describing various security implications for wireless network	6%
Secure VPN Configuration and Management	- Understanding Virtual Private Network (VPN) and its working - Importance of establishing VPN - Describing various VPN components - Describing implementation of VPN concentrators and its functions - Explaining different types of VPN technologies - Discussing components for selecting appropriate VPN technology - Explaining core functions of VPN - Explaining various topologies for implementation of VPN - Discussing various VPN security concerns - Discussing various security implications to ensure VPN security and performance	6%
Network Security Policy Design and Implementation	- Understanding security policy - Need of security policies - Describing the hierarchy of security policy - Describing the characteristics of a good security policy - Describing typical content of security policy - Understanding policy statement - Describing steps for creating and implementing security policy - Designing of security policy - Implementation of security policy - Describing various types of security policy - Designing of various security policies - Discussing various information security related standards, laws and acts	6%
Host Security	- Understanding host security - Understanding the importance of securing individual hosts - Understanding threats specific to hosts - Identifying paths to host threats - Purpose of host before assessment - Describing host security baselining - Describing OS security baselining - Understanding and describing security requirements for different types of servers - Understanding security requirements for hardening of routers - Understanding security requirements for hardening of switches - Understanding data security concerns when data is at rest, in use, and in motion - Understanding virtualization security	7%
Physical Security	- Understanding physical security - Importance of physical security - Factors affecting physical security - Describing various physical security controls - Understanding the selection of Fire Fighting Systems - Describing various access control authentication techniques - Understanding workplace security - Understanding personnel security - Describing Environmental Controls - Importance of physical security awareness and training	6%
Secure IDS Configuration and Management	- Understanding different types of intrusions and their indications - Understanding IDPS - Importance of implementing IDPS - Describing role of IDPS in network defense - Describing functions, components, and working of IDPS - Explaining various types of IDS implementation - Describing staged deployment of NIDS and HIDS - Describing fine-tuning of IDS by minimizing false positive and false negative rate - Discussing characteristics of good IDS implementation - Discussing common IDS implementation mistakes and their remedies - Explaining various types of IPS implementation - Discussing requirements for selecting appropriate IDSP product - Technologies complementing IDS functionality	8%
Network Traffic Monitoring and Analysis	- Understanding network traffic monitoring - Importance of network traffic monitoring - Discussing techniques used for network monitoring and analysis - Appropriate position for network monitoring - Connection of network monitoring system with managed switch - Understanding network traffic signatures - Baselining for normal traffic - Disusing the various categories of suspicious traffic signatures - Various techniques for attack signature analysis - Understanding Wireshark components, working and features - Demonstrating the use of various Wireshark filters - Demonstrating the monitoring LAN traffic against policy violation - Demonstrating the security monitoring of network traffic - Demonstrating the detection of various attacks using Wireshark - Discussing network bandwidth monitoring and performance improvement	9%
Network Risk and Vulnerability Management	- Understanding risk and risk management - Key roles and responsibilities in risk management - Understanding Key Risk Indicators (KRI) in risk management - Explaining phase involves in risk management - Understanding enterprise network risk management - Describing various risk management frameworks - Discussing best practices for effective implementation of risk management - Understanding vulnerability management - Explaining various phases involve in vulnerability management - Understanding vulnerability assessment and its importance - Discussing requirements for effective network vulnerability assessment - Discussing internal and external vulnerability assessment - Discussing steps for effective external vulnerability assessment - Describing various phases involve in vulnerability assessment - Selection of appropriate vulnerability assessment tool - Discussing best practices and precautions for deploying vulnerability assessment tool - Describing vulnerability reporting, mitigation, remediation and verification	9%
Network Incident Response and Management	- Understanding Incident Handling and Response (IH&R) - Roles and responsibilities of Incident Response Team (IRT) - Describing role of first responder - Describing first response activities for network administrators - Describing Incident Handling and Response (IH&R) process - Understanding forensic investigation - People involved in forensics investigation - Describing forensics investigation methodology	8%
Network Security Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Attacks	- Understanding threat, attack, and vulnerability - Discussing network security concerns - Reasons behind network security concerns - Effect of network security breach on business continuity - Understanding different types of network threats - Understanding different types of network security vulnerabilities - Understanding different types of network attacks - Describing various network attacks	5%

NEW QUESTION 102
In which of the following conditions does the system enter ROM monitor mode? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

• A. The router does not have a configuration file.
• B. The router does not find a valid operating system image.
• C. The user interrupts the boot sequence.
• D. There is a need to set operating parameters.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
The system enters ROM monitor mode if the router does not find a valid operating system image, or if a user
interrupts the boot sequence. From ROM monitor mode, a user can boot the device or perform diagnostic
tests.
Answer option A is incorrect. If the router does not have a configuration file, it will automatically enter Setup
mode when the user switches it on. Setup mode creates an initial configuration.
Answer option B is incorrect. Privileged EXEC is used for setting operating parameters.

 

NEW QUESTION 103
Which of the following IP addresses is the loopback address in IPv6?

• A. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0
• B. 0:0:0:1:1:0:0:0
• C. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
• D. 1:0:0:0:0:0:0:0

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 104
Which of the following UTP cables uses four pairs of twisted cable and provides transmission speeds of up to
16 Mbps?

• A. Category 5e
• B. Category 3
• C. Category 6
• D. Category 5

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation:
Category 3 type of UTP cable uses four pairs of twisted cable and provides transmission speeds of up to 16 Mbps. They are commonly used in Ethernet networks that operate at the speed of 10 Mbps. A higher speed is also possible by these cables implementing the Fast Ethernet (100Base-T4) specifications. This cable is used mainly for telephone systems.
Answer option C is incorrect. This category of UTP cable is the most commonly used cable in present day networks. It consists of four twisted pairs and is used in those Ethernet networks that run at the speed of 100 Mbps. Category 5 cable can also provide a higher speed of up to 1000 Mbps.
Answer option A is incorrect. It is also known as Category 5 Enhanced cable. Its specification is the same as category 5, but it has some enhanced features and is used in Ethernets that run at the speed of 1000 Mbps.
Answer option D is incorrect. This category of UTP cable is designed to support high-speed networks that run at the speed of 1000 Mbps. It consists of four pairs of wire and uses all of them for data transmission. Category
6 provides more than twice the speed of Category 5e, but is also more expensive.

 

NEW QUESTION 105
Which of the following are used as a cost estimating technique during the project planning stage?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

• A. Function point analysis
• B. Delphi technique
• C. Expert judgment
• D. Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT)

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:
Delphi technique, expert judgment, and function point analysis are used as a cost estimating technique during the project planning stage. Delphi is a technique to identify potential risk. In this technique, the responses are gathered via a questionnaire from different experts and their inputs are organized according to their contents. The collected responses are sent back to these experts for further input, addition, and comments. The final list of risks in the project is prepared after that. The participants in this technique are anonymous and therefore it helps prevent a person from unduly influencing the others in the group. The Delphi technique helps in reaching the consensus quickly. Expert judgment is a technique based on a set of criteria that has been acquired in a specific knowledge area or product area. It is obtained when the project manager or project team requires specialized knowledge that they do not possess. Expert judgment involves people most familiar with the work of creating estimates. Preferably, the project team member who will be doing the task should complete the estimates. Expert judgment is applied when performing administrative closure activities, and experts should ensure the project or phase closure is performed to the appropriate standards. A function point is a unit of measurement to express the amount of business functionality an information system provides to a user. Function points are the units of measure used by the IFPUG Functional Size Measurement Method. The IFPUG FSM Method is an ISO recognized software metric to size an information system based on the functionality that is perceived by the user of the information system, independent of the technology used to implement the information system. Answer option B is incorrect. A PERT chart is a project management tool used to schedule, organize, and coordinate tasks within a project. PERT stands for Program Evaluation Review Technique, a methodology developed by the U.S. Navy in the 1950s to manage the Polaris submarine missile program. A PERT chart presents a graphic illustration of a project as a network diagram consisting of numbered nodes (either circles or rectangles) representing events, or milestones in the project linked by labeled vectors (directional lines) representing tasks in the project. The direction of the arrows on the lines indicates the sequence of tasks.

 

NEW QUESTION 106
Which of the following is a Unix and Windows tool capable of intercepting traffic on a network segment and capturing username and password?

• A. BackTrack
• B. Ettercap
• C. AirSnort
• D. Aircrack

Answer: B

Explanation:
Ettercap is a Unix and Windows tool for computer network protocol analysis and security auditing. It is capable of intercepting traffic on a network segment, capturing passwords, and conducting active eavesdropping against a number of common protocols. It is a free open source software. Ettercap supports active and passive dissection of many protocols (including ciphered ones) and provides many features for network and host analysis.
Answer option C is incorrect. BackTrack is a Linux distribution distributed as a Live CD, which is used for penetration testing. It allows users to include customizable scripts, additional tools and configurable kernels in personalized distributions. It contains various tools, such as Metasploit integration, RFMON injection capable wireless drivers, kismet, autoscan-network (network discovering and managing application), nmap, ettercap, wireshark (formerly known as Ethereal).
Answer option A is incorrect. AirSnort is a Linux-based WLAN WEP cracking tool that recovers encryption keys. AirSnort operates by passively monitoring transmissions. It uses Ciphertext Only Attack and captures approximately 5 to 10 million packets to decrypt the WEP keys. Answer option D is incorrect. Aircrack is the fastest WEP/WPA cracking tool used for 802.11a/b/g WEP and WPA cracking.

 

NEW QUESTION 107
Elden is working as a network administrator at an IT company. His organization opted for a virtualization technique in which the guest OS is aware of the virtual environment in which it is running and communicates with the host machines for requesting resources. Identify the virtualization technique implemented by Elden's organization.

• A. Full virtualization
• B. Hybrid virtualization
• C. Para virtualization
• D. Hardware-assisted virtualization

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 108
John works as an Incident manager for TechWorld Inc. His task is to set up a wireless network for his organization. For this, he needs to decide the appropriate devices and policies required to set up the network.
Which of the following phases of the incident handling process will help him accomplish the task?

• A. Containment
• B. Preparation
• C. Eradication
• D. Recovery

Answer: B

Explanation:
Preparation is the first step in the incident handling process. It includes processes like backing up copies of all key data on a regular basis, monitoring and updating software on a regular basis, and creating and implementing a documented security policy. To apply this step a documented security policy is formulated that outlines the responses to various incidents, as a reliable set of instructions during the time of an incident. The following list contains items that the incident handler should maintain in the preparation phase i.e. before an incident occurs:
Establish applicable policies
Build relationships with key players
Build response kit
Create incident checklists
Establish communication plan
Perform threat modeling
Build an incident response team
Practice the demo incidents
Answer option A is incorrect. The Containment phase of the Incident handling process is responsible for supporting and building up the incident combating process. It ensures the stability of the system and also confirms that the incident does not get any worse. The Containment phase includes the process of preventing further contamination of the system or network, and preserving the evidence of the contamination.
Answer option D is incorrect. The Eradication phase of the Incident handling process involves the cleaning-up of the identified harmful incidents from the system. It includes the analyzing of the information that has been gathered for determining how the attack was committed. To prevent the incident from happening again, it is vital to recognize how it was conceded out so that a prevention technique is applied.
Answer option B is incorrect. Recovery is the fifth step of the incident handling process. In this phase, the Incident Handler places the system back into the working environment. In the recovery phase the Incident Handler also works with the questions to validate that the system recovery is successful. This involves testing the system to make sure that all the processes and functions are working normal. The Incident Handler also monitors the system to make sure that the systems are not compromised again. It looks for additional signs of attack.

 

NEW QUESTION 109
A newly joined network administrator wants to assess the organization against possible risk. He notices the organization doesn't have a________identified which helps measure how risky an activity is.

• A. Risk levels
• B. Risk Matrix
• C. Key Risk Indicator
• D. Risk Severity

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 110
Token Ring is standardized by which of the following IEEE standards?

• A. 802.4
• B. 802.1
• C. 802.2
• D. 802.3

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 111
Fred is a network technician working for Johnson Services, a temporary employment agency in Boston. Johnson Services has three remote offices in New England and the headquarters in Boston where Fred works.
The company relies on a number of customized applications to perform daily tasks and unfortunately these applications require users to be local administrators. Because of this, Fred's supervisor wants to implement tighter security measures in other areas to compensate for the inherent risks in making those users local admins. Fred's boss wants a solution that will be placed on all computers throughout the company and monitored by Fred. This solution will gather information on all network traffic to and from the local computers without actually affecting the traffic. What type of solution does Fred's boss want to implement?

• A. Fred's boss wants to implement a HIDS solution.
• B. Fred's boss wants to implement a HIPS solution.
• C. Fred's boss wants a NIDS implementation.
• D. Fred's boss wants Fred to monitor a NIPS system.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 112
Which of the following IEEE standards is also called Fast Basic Service Set Transition?

• A. 802.11b
• B. 802.11a
• C. 802.11e
• D. 802.11r

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 113
Which of the following are used as a cost estimating technique during the project planning stage? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose three.)

• A. Function point analysis
• B. Delphi technique
• C. Expert judgment
• D. Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT)

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:
Delphi technique, expert judgment, and function point analysis are used as a cost estimating technique during the project planning stage. Delphi is a technique to identify potential risk. In this technique, the responses are gathered via a questionnaire from different experts and their inputs are organized according to their contents.
The collected responses are sent back to these experts for further input, addition, and comments. The final list of risks in the project is prepared after that. The participants in this technique are anonymous and therefore it helps prevent a person from unduly influencing the others in the group. The Delphi technique helps in reaching the consensus quickly. Expert judgment is a technique based on a set of criteria that has been acquired in a specific knowledge area or product area. It is obtained when the project manager or project team requires specialized knowledge that they do not possess. Expert judgment involves people most familiar with the work of creating estimates. Preferably, the project team member who will be doing the task should complete the estimates. Expert judgment is applied when performing administrative closure activities, and experts should ensure the project or phase closure is performed to the appropriate standards.
A function point is a unit of measurement to express the amount of business functionality an information system provides to a user. Function points are the units of measure used by the IFPUG Functional Size Measurement Method. The IFPUG FSM Method is an ISO recognized software metric to size an information system based on the functionality that is perceived by the user of the information system, independent of the technology used to implement the information system.
Answer option B is incorrect. A PERT chart is a project management tool used to schedule, organize, and coordinate tasks within a project. PERT stands for Program Evaluation Review Technique, a methodology developed by the U.S. Navy in the 1950s to manage the Polaris submarine missile program. A PERT chart presents a graphic illustration of a project as a network diagram consisting of numbered nodes (either circles or rectangles) representing events, or milestones in the project linked by labeled vectors (directional lines) representing tasks in the project. The direction of the arrows on the lines indicates the sequence of tasks.

 

NEW QUESTION 114
Which of the following IP class addresses are not allotted to hosts? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

• A. Class C
• B. Class B
• C. Class E
• D. Class D
• E. Class A

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Class addresses D and E are not allotted to hosts. Class D addresses are reserved for multicasting, and their address range can extend from 224 to 239. Class E addresses are reserved for experimental purposes. Their addresses range from 240 to 254. Answer option C is incorrect. Class A addresses are specified for large networks. It consists of up to 16,777,214 client devices (hosts), and their address range can extend from 1 to 126. Answer option D is incorrect. Class B addresses are specified for medium size networks. It consists of up to 65,534 client devices, and their address range can extend from 128 to 191. Answer option A is incorrect. Class C addresses are specified for small local area networks (LANs). It consists of up to 245 client devices, and their address range can extend from 192 to
223.

 

NEW QUESTION 115
Choose the correct order of steps to analyze the attack surface.

• A. Identify the indicators of exposure->simulate the attack->visualize the attack surface->reduce the attack surface
• B. Visualize the attack surface->simulate the attack->identify the indicators of exposure->reduce the attack surface
• C. Visualize the attack surface->identify the indicators of exposure->simulate the attack->reduce the attack surface
• D. Identify the indicators of exposure->visualize the attack surface->simulate the attack->reduce the attack surface

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 116
Which of the following is a management process that provides a framework for promoting quick recovery and the capability for an effective response to protect the interests of its brand, reputation, and stakeholders?

• A. Business Continuity Management
• B. Log analysis
• C. Patch management
• D. Incident handling

Answer: A

Explanation:
Business Continuity Management is a management process that determines potential impacts that are likely to threaten an organization. It provides a framework for promoting quick recovery and the capability for an effective response to protect the interests of its brand, reputation, and stakeholders. Business continuity management includes disaster recovery, business recovery, crisis management, incident management, emergency management, product recall, contingency planning, etc.
Answer option B is incorrect. Patch management is an area of systems management that involves acquiring, testing, and installing multiple patches (code changes) to an administered computer system. Patch management includes the following tasks:
Maintaining current knowledge of available patches
Deciding what patches are appropriate for particular systems
Ensuring that patches are installed properly
Testing systems after installation, and documenting all associated procedures, such as specific configurations required A number of products are available to automate patch management tasks, including Ring Master's Automated Patch Management, Patch Link Update, and Gibraltar's Ever guard.
Answer option A is incorrect. This option is invalid.
Answer option C is incorrect. Incident handling is the process of managing incidents in an Enterprise, Business, or an Organization. It involves the thinking of the prospective suitable to the enterprise and then the implementation of the prospective in a clean and manageable manner.
It involves completing the incident report and presenting the conclusion to the management and providing ways to improve the process both from a technical and administrative aspect. Incident handling ensures that the overall process of an enterprise runs in an uninterrupted continuity.

 

NEW QUESTION 117
The _______ protocol works in the network layer and is responsible for handling the error codes during the delivery of packets. This protocol is also responsible for providing communication in the TCP/IP stack.

• A. ICMP
• B. RARP
• C. ARP
• D. DHCP

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 118
Which of the following statements are NOT true about the FAT16 file system?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

• A. It works well with large disks because the cluster size increases as the disk partition size increases.
• B. It supports the Linux operating system.
• C. It supports file-level compression.
• D. It does not support file-level security.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
The FAT16 file system was developed for disks larger than 16MB. It uses 16-bit allocation table
entries. The FAT16 file system supports all Microsoft operating systems. It also supports OS/2 and
Linux.
Answer options C and A are incorrect. All these statements are true about the FAT16 file system.

 

NEW QUESTION 119
Which of the following IP class addresses are not allotted to hosts?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

• A. Class C
• B. Class B
• C. Class E
• D. Class D
• E. Class A

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Class addresses D and E are not allotted to hosts. Class D addresses are reserved for multicasting, and their address range can extend from 224 to 239. Class E addresses are reserved for experimental purposes. Their addresses range from 240 to 254. Answer option A is incorrect. Class A addresses are specified for large networks. It consists of up to 16,777,214 client devices (hosts), and their address range can extend from 1 to 126. Answer option B is incorrect. Class B addresses are specified for medium size networks. It consists of up to 65,534 client devices, and their address range can extend from 128 to 191. Answer option E is incorrect. Class C addresses are specified for small local area networks (LANs). It consists of up to 245 client devices, and their address range can extend from 192 to
223.

 

NEW QUESTION 120
Which of the following attack surface increase when you keep USB ports enabled on your laptop unnecessarily?

• A. Physical attack surface
• B. Human attack surface
• C. Software attack surface
• D. Network attack surface

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 121
Which of the following are the common security problems involved in communications and email?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

• A. False message
• B. Message modification
• C. Eavesdropping
• D. Message replay
• E. Identity theft
• F. Message repudiation
• G. Message digest

Answer: A,B,C,D,E,F

Explanation:
Following are the common security problems involved in communications and email:
Eavesdropping: It is the act of secretly listening to private information through telephone lines, e-
mail, instant messaging, and any other method of communication considered private.
Identity theft: It is the act of obtaining someone's username and password to access his/her email
servers for reading email and sending false email messages. These credentials can be obtained
by eavesdropping on SMTP, POP, IMAP, or Webmail connections.
Message modification: The person who has system administrator permission on any of the SMTP
servers can visit anyone's message and can delete or change the message before it continues on
to its destination. The recipient has no way of telling that the email message has been altered.
False message: It the act of constructing messages that appear to be sent by someone else.
Message replay: In a message replay, messages are modified, saved, and re-sent later.
Message repudiation: In message repudiation, normal email messages can be forged. There is no
way for the receiver to prove that someone had sent him/her a particular message. This means
that even if someone has sent a message, he/she can successfully deny it.
Answer option D is incorrect. A message digest is a number that is created algorithmically from a
file and represents that file uniquely.

 

NEW QUESTION 122
Which of the following IEEE standards is an example of a DQDB access method?

• A. 802.4
• B. 802.6
• C. 802.3
• D. 802.5

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:

 

NEW QUESTION 123
Which of the following OSI layers is sometimes called the syntax layer?

• A. Data link layer
• B. Presentation layer
• C. Application layer
• D. Physical layer

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 124
......

The EC-Council 312-38 test is the required exam for obtaining the Certified Network Defender certification. This certificate covers the individuals’ skills in detecting, responding, and protecting against threats on networks. The candidates interested in this path are required to demonstrate their understanding of data transfer, software technologies, and network technologies. They should be able to use their skills to evaluate the subject material and understand the specific software that should be automated.

This certification exam evaluates the applicants’ competence in various network defense fundamentals, network security application controls, as well as perimeter appliances, protocols, and VPNs. To succeed in the test, you should also have knowledge of firewall configurations, secure IDS, network traffic signature intricacies, vulnerability, and analysis scanning.

312-38 Dumps and Practice Test (171 Exam Questions): https://www.actual4exams.com/312-38-valid-dump.html

Guide (New 2021) Actual EC-COUNCIL 312-38 Exam Questions: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1NIpEfP93bH0E0HdGsHY9nWjN1iQCEhTz