[Mar-2024] Scrum SMC DUMPS WITH REAL EXAM QUESTIONS [Q26-Q49]

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[Mar-2024] Scrum SMC DUMPS WITH REAL EXAM QUESTIONS

2024 New Actual4Exams SMC PDF Recently Updated Questions


The SMC certification exam is designed to evaluate an individual’s understanding of Scrum principles, practices, and concepts. SMC exam covers a range of topics, including Scrum theory, roles, events, artifacts, and values. It also tests the candidates' ability to apply Scrum principles to real-world scenarios and their understanding of how to facilitate Agile ceremonies and manage Agile teams effectively.

 

NEW QUESTION # 26
As a Scrum Master, it is important that you assess skill gaps and training requirements for the team members, and map the skills, capabilities, and interest level of team members in using those skills and capabilities on a project. Which one of the following tools can help you do this?

  • A. Organizational Deployment Method.
  • B. Daily Standup.
  • C. Skills Requirement Matrix.
  • D. Organizational Resource Matrix.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Skills Requirement Matrix, also known as a competency framework, is used to assess skill gaps and training requirements for team members. A skills matrix maps the skills, capabilities, and interest level of team members in using those skills and capabilities on a project. Using this matrix, the organization can assess any skill gaps in team members and identify the employees who will need further training in a particular area or competency. Team members may not always possess the required knowledge or skills to work in the Scrum environment. The Product Owner should evaluate the training needs of potential team members and facilitate training to bridge any knowledge gaps in the team.


NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to Change in Scrum projects?
A) The Scrum Master suggests changes in consultation with the Scrum Team.
B) The Scrum Master can recommend changes based on Retrospect Sprint Meetings.
C) Changes that are beyond the tolerance level of the Product Owner may need the assistance of the Scrum Master working with the Product Owner.
D) The Scrum Master finalizes the formal change requests along with the Scrum Team.

  • A. C and D
  • B. Only D
  • C. A and B
  • D. Only A

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 28
The Scrum Master can help the Product Owner deploy Product Releases and coordinate deployment with the customer by helping him/her adopt Organizational Deployment methods. Which of the following statements about the deployment mechanisms of an organization is true?

  • A. Deployment mechanisms are notwell-defined in most cases.
  • B. Deployment mechanisms can take place remotely.
  • C. Deployment mechanisms do not provide any guidelines regarding minimum functionality.
  • D. Deployment mechanisms are static, and cannot vary across organizations.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The deployment mechanisms of each organization tend to be different based onindustry, target users, and positioning. Depending on the product being delivered, deployment can take place remotely or may involve the physical shipping or transition of an item.


NEW QUESTION # 29
Collaboration within a team is an important principle of Scrum. Allof the following activities constitute collaboration EXCEPT:

  • A. The Scrum Team interacts with the Product Owner to obtain clarification on User Stories.
  • B. The Scrum Team discusses the best approach to creating deliverables during a Sprint.
  • C. A Scrum Team member is facing difficulties in one of his tasks and another team member pitches in to help him.
  • D. The Scrum Team decides which User Stories are important and assigns which Sprint they should be worked on.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 30
The senior management of a multi-national company undertakes turnkey projects. To provide better value to customers, the senior management wants to implement Scrum in the organization. Which of the following is NOT a Scrum principle that can be used as a selling point to illustrate the benefits of Scrum to customers?

  • A. Value-based Prioritization.
  • B. Self-organization.
  • C. Collaboration.
  • D. Theoretical process control.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: http://blog.scrumstudy.com/6-main-principles-of-scrum-methodology/


NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following is the correct format for writing a User Story?

  • A. I should be able to {benefit}, as a {role/persona} so that {requirement}.
  • B. As a {role/persona}, I should be able to {benefit} so that {requirement}.
  • C. I should be able to {requirement} so that {benefit} as a {role/persona}.
  • D. As a {role/persona}, I should be able to {requirement} so that {benefit}.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following statements about Release Planning Session is/are Correct?
A) Release Planning Sessions are conducted to develop a plan that defines when various sets of usable functionality or products will be delivered to the customer.
B) Release Planning Sessions enable the Scrum Team to have an overview of the releases and delivery schedule for the product they are developing.
C) Whether the releases will follow a phased deployment pattern or a continuous deployment pattern depends on the stakeholder requirements.
D) Release Planning Sessions should produce a detailed Release Plan for the entire project.

  • A. A and D
  • B. B and C
  • C. A and B
  • D. A

Answer: C

Explanation:
Release Planning Sessions are conducted to develop a Release Plan. The plan defines when various sets of usable functionality or products will be delivered to the customer. In Scrum, the major objective of a Release Planning Meeting is to enable the Scrum Team to have an overview of the releases and delivery schedule for the product they are developing so that they can align with the expectations of the Product Owner and relevant stakeholders (primarily the project sponsor).


NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following meetings is not usually Time-boxed?

  • A. Daily Standup.
  • B. Sprint Planning Meeting.
  • C. Scrum of Scrums.
  • D. Sprint Review.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 34
You are the Scrum Master on a project to develop machine parts for automobile manufacturing. The Product Owner on your project proposes to use Utility Function to find out the stakeholders' risk tolerance level. Which of the following is NOT a risk tolerance classification?

  • A. Risk Mitigator.
  • B. Risk Seeker.
  • C. Neutral Risk Taker.
  • D. Risk Averter.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: http://blog.scrumstudy.com/how-to-identify-risk/


NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following best describes why Epics are decomposed into smaller User Stories during a Sprint?

  • A. Scrum Teams are smaller in size.
  • B. Too large to be completed in a Sprint.
  • C. Take considerably longer time to review.
  • D. Tasks are easier to complete.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 36
You are a Scrum Master on a project that is preparing to begin its first Sprint. You explain to the Scrum team the concept of Daily Standup Meetings. You include all of the following points in your introduction to the Daily Standup Meeting, EXCEPT:

  • A. The meeting may be cancelled or delayed if one or more members are not able to attend.
  • B. The information provided by the Team members is used to identify the impediments in the way of project progress.
  • C. Team members assemble to report their progress in the Sprint and plan the day's activities.
  • D. The Daily Standup Meeting is a short daily meeting, time-boxed to 15 minutes.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 37
While assisting the Product Owner in developing a Prioritized Product Backlog, the Scrum Master must consider the primary factors on which the Prioritized Product Backlog is based-on. Which of the following are those primary factors?
A) Value
B) Dependencies
C) Risk
D) Deliverables

  • A. A, C, and D
  • B. C
  • C. A
  • D. A, B, and C

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Prioritized Product Backlog contains a prioritized list of business and project requirements written in the form of Epic(s), which are high level User Stories. The Prioritized Product Backlog is based on three primary factors: value, risk or uncertainty, and dependencies. It is also referred to as the Risk Adjusted Product Backlog since it includes identified and assessed risks related to the project.


NEW QUESTION # 38
The Product Owner on a project, on which you are the Scrum Master, has identified disaster situations, such as earthquakes and tsunamis, as potential risks to the underwater transnational communication sea link. The Stakeholders have suggested that steps to safeguard the foundations of the ocean infrastructure be taken at the earliest, and also have recommended that a contingency reserve be created, which could be used in case of disaster situations. This is an example of:

  • A. Risk Prioritization.
  • B. Risk Mitigation.
  • C. Risk Assessment.
  • D. Risk Avoidance.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Reference:
http://blog.scrumstudy.com/risk-management-in-scrum-2/


NEW QUESTION # 39
A new developer is having continuing conflicts with existing Development Team members and creating a hostile environment. If necessary, who is responsible for removing the team member?

  • A. The organization's management is responsible for managing unruly Development Team members.
  • B. The Scrum Master is responsible, because she removes impediments.
  • C. The Product Owner is responsible as this person can affect value.
  • D. The Development Team may elect to remove a team member from the team.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 40
Scrum can easily be scaled for effective use in large projects with multiple small teams working on the project.
Which of the following facilitates coordination among scrum teams?

  • A. Scrum of Scrums Meeting
  • B. Sprint Review Meeting
  • C. Daily Standup Meeting
  • D. Sprint Planning Meeting

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
There are a lot of people who say "Scrum can be used to improve the team productivity but is not scalable". In fact, it can easily bescaled for effective use in large projects. Multiple Scrum Teams can be formed to work on the project where the Scrum Team size exceeds ten people. The Convene Scrum of Scrums process facilitates coordination among the Scrum Teams, enabling effective implementation in larger projects.
Multiple
Scrum Teams work in parallel in large projects, making it necessary to synchronize and facilitate the flow of information and enhance communication. The Convene Scrum of Scrums is the process ensuring this synchronization. The various Scrum Teams are represented in this meeting and the objectives are to provide updates about progress, discuss challenges faced during the project, and coordinate activities.


NEW QUESTION # 41
One of the core principles of Scrum is Empirical Process Control. As a Scrum Master, which ofthe following statements would you recognize as the best description of the Empirical Process Control?

  • A. Empirical ProcessControl model helps make decisions based on observation and experimentation rather than on detailed upfront planning.
  • B. Empirical Process Control model helps make decisions based on a particular input that will always provide a specific output.
  • C. Empirical Process Control model helps make decisions based on processes that generate unpredictable and unrepeatable outputs.
  • D. Empirical Process Control model helps make decisions based on inputs and requirements that are clearly defined and sorted out.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Transparency allows all facets of any Scrum process to be observed by anyone. This promotes an easy and transparent flow ofinformation throughout the organization and creates an open work culture. In Scrum, transparency is depicted through:
1. Artifacts
i. Project Vision Statement
ii. Prioritized Product Backlog
iii. Release Planning Schedule
2. Meetings
i. SprintReview Meetings
ii. Daily Standup Meetings
3. Information Radiators
i. Burndown Chart
ii. Scrumboard


NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following statements on Risk Management in a Scrum project is INCORRECT?

  • A. Risk is largely minimized in Scrum due to the flexibility in adding or modifying requirements at any time in the project lifecycle.
  • B. Risk Burndown Charts aye an important tool for communicating information related to risks to the Stakeholders.
  • C. Risks can be managed only at the project level, even if they are related to or originate in portfolios or programs.
  • D. The iterative nature of Scrum with its rapid turnaround time and feedback cycles allows for early detection of failures.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Reference:
http://blog.scrumstudy.com/how-scrum-framework-minimizes-risks-threats-in-projects-2/


NEW QUESTION # 43
Between traditional Project Management and Scrum, differences exist in how quality is achieved and/or implemented. In this respect, which of the following is NOT true?

  • A. In Scrum, the development of the product is carried out by the Scrum Team in short iterations called Sprints.
  • B. In traditional project management, changes can be made only through a formal change management system.
  • C. In traditional project management, once the user clarifies their quality expectations, it is the Project Manager who defines those user expectations in measurable terms.
  • D. In Scrum, the Scrum Master and the Scrum Team collaborate and decide on the Acceptance Criteria for the User Stories.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reference:
then-refuse-it


NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following statements about Release Planning Session is/are Correct?
A) Release Planning Sessions are conducted to develop a plan that defines when various sets of usable functionality or products will be delivered to the customer.
B) Release Planning Sessions enable the Scrum Team tohave an overview of the releases and delivery schedule for the product they are developing.
C) Whether the releases will follow a phased deployment pattern or a continuous deployment pattern depends on the stakeholder requirements.
D) Release Planning Sessions should produce a detailed Release Plan for the entire project.

  • A. A and D
  • B. A and
  • C. and
  • D. A

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Release Planning Sessions are conducted to develop a Release Plan. The plan defines when various sets of usablefunctionality or products will be delivered to the customer. In Scrum, the major objective of a Release Planning Meeting is to enable the Scrum Team to have an overview of the releases and delivery schedule for the product they are developing so that theycan align with the expectations of the Product Owner and relevant stakeholders (primarily the project sponsor).


NEW QUESTION # 45
Gregory is the Scrum Master on a project to create automated devices for the health industry. He advocates that every member of the Scrum Team should actively participate in team building activities, estimation meetings, and in Daily Standups. He looks to give more responsibility to team members. Which of the following theories does Gregory seem to subscribe to?

  • A. Maslow's hierarchy of needs
  • B. Theory X
  • C. Theory Y
  • D. Win/Win Conflict Resolution

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 46
Emily has taken on the role of Scrum Master on a new project. Training the team is one of her major responsibilities. As Scrum Master, which aspects will Emily need to address in this respect?
A) Gaps in technical knowledge in any of the team members.
B) Shortcomings in the Scrum Team's understanding of business value of features.
C) Increasing the team's capability to articulate their challenges to find solutions.
D) Lack of understanding of the Scrum processes and principles.

  • A. A, B, and C
  • B. B and C
  • C. C only
  • D. C and D

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 47
During a Daily Standup Meeting, several members of the team voice their concerns about some Acceptance Criteri A.
Which of the following would be the best course of action?

  • A. Discuss and resolve issues as and when they are spoken about during the meeting.
  • B. The Product Owner should discuss the issues with the management and come up with solutions after the meeting.
  • C. Discuss among Core Roles after the meeting and resolve the issues.
  • D. The Product Owner must proactively help the team solve issues during the meeting.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 48
To ensure that there is no gap between the customer's expectation from the project, and the deliverables produced, the Scrum Master has to eliminate environmental obstructions that the team may face, that may affect the quality of the deliverables. To do so, apart from Quality Planning, the team has to ensure Quality Control, and Quality Assurance. Which of the following statements is true regarding Quality Assurance and Quality Control?

  • A. Quality Control involves execution of planned quality activities; Quality Assurance involves carrying out integration-type activities.
  • B. Quality Control activities are carried out during the process of Creating Deliverables that are potentially shippable; Quality Assurance activities are usually standalone activities, not carried out as part of the work.
  • C. Quality Control lessons are learned during the Sprint Retrospect meeting; Quality Assurance is demonstrated during the Sprint Review Meeting.
  • D. Specific skills are not required to perform Quality Control activities; Quality Assurance is a significant factor of the definition of Done.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Quality control refers to the execution of the planned quality activities by the Scrum Team in the process of creating deliverables that are potentially shippable. It also includes learning from each set of completed activities in order to achieve continuous improvement. Within the cross-functional team, it is important to have the skills necessary to perform quality control activities. During the Sprint Retrospect Meeting, team members discuss lessons learned. These lessons act as inputs into continuous improvement and contribute to the improvement of ongoing quality control.
Quality is required not only in products, but also in processes. Quality assurance refers to the evaluation of processes and standards that govern quality management in a project to ensure that they continue to be relevant. Quality assurance activities are carried out as part of the work. In fact, quality assurance is a significant factor of the definition of Done. The deliverable isn't complete if appropriate quality assurance has not been conducted. Often, quality assurance is demonstrated during the Sprint Review Meeting.


NEW QUESTION # 49
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Scrum Master Certified (SMC) is a globally recognized certification program that validates an individual’s knowledge and expertise in Scrum – an Agile framework widely used for managing complex software development projects. Scrum Master Certified (SMC) certification is designed to help professionals enhance their skills as a Scrum Master and equip them with the essential tools and techniques required to lead and manage Scrum teams successfully.


The SMC certification exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge of the Scrum framework, including its roles, events, artifacts, and principles. SMC exam covers a wide range of topics, including Agile methodology, Scrum roles and responsibilities, Scrum events, Scrum artifacts, and Agile estimation and planning. SMC exam is an online, multiple-choice test that consists of 100 questions. Candidates have 120 minutes to complete the exam and must score a minimum of 60% to pass.

 

Latest SMC Pass Guaranteed Exam Dumps Certification Sample Questions: https://www.actual4exams.com/SMC-valid-dump.html

SMC Exam with Guarantee Updated 149 Questions: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1w10LNS1XlEYMNWOjPqgv4NoweNO8pCG-