[Oct 31, 2023] 100% Pass Guarantee for CV0-003 Dumps with Actual Exam Questions
Today Updated CV0-003 Exam Dumps Actual Questions
Achieving the CompTIA Cloud+ certification demonstrates proficiency in cloud computing technologies and validates the skills required to manage and maintain cloud infrastructure. CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam certification is recognized worldwide and is highly regarded by employers in the IT industry. Individuals can use the certification to advance their careers in cloud computing and open up new job opportunities in the field.
The CV0-003 certification exam is an essential credential for IT professionals who want to specialize in cloud computing. CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam certification exam helps IT professionals to demonstrate their cloud computing skills to potential employers and advance their career in the cloud computing industry. CV0-003 exam covers various topics related to cloud computing, including cloud infrastructure, virtualization, security, and network management. By earning this certification, IT professionals can validate their expertise in cloud computing and enhance their credibility in the job market.
The CV0-003 Exam is a vendor-neutral certification exam that is aimed at IT professionals who have at least two to three years of experience in networking, storage, or data center administration. CV0-003 exam covers a range of topics related to cloud computing, including infrastructure, security, virtualization, and automation. CV0-003 exam consists of 90 multiple-choice and performance-based questions, and candidates are given 90 minutes to complete it.
NEW QUESTION # 225
Which of the following should an administrator establish before deploying a guest VM in a production environment?
- A. Patch management schedule
- B. Business continuity plan
- C. Access control list
- D. Disaster recovery plan
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 226
Lateral-moving malware has infected the server infrastructure.
Which of the following network changes would MOST effectively prevent lateral movement in the future?
- A. Segment the physical network using a VLAN
- B. Implement 802.1X in the network infrastructure
- C. Implement microsegmentation on the network
- D. Implement DNSSEC in all DNS servers
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Microsegmentation is a type of network security technique that divides a network into smaller logical segments or zones based on workload or application characteristics and applies granular policies and rules to control and isolate traffic within each segment or zone. Implementing microsegmentation on the network can help prevent lateral movement in the future after lateral-moving malware has infected the server infrastructure, as it can limit the exposure and spread of malware by restricting access and communication between different segments or zones based on predefined criteria such as identity, role, or behavior. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7
NEW QUESTION # 227
A systems administrator for an e-commerce company will be migrating the company's main website to a cloud provider. The principal requirement is that the website must be highly available.
Which of the following will BEST address this requirement?
- A. Redundant switches
- B. A next-generation firewall
- C. Vertical scaling
- D. A server cluster
Answer: D
Explanation:
A server cluster is a group of servers that work together to provide high availability, load balancing, and scalability for applications or services. A server cluster can help ensure the high availability requirement for migrating an e-commerce company's main website to a cloud provider, as it can prevent downtime or disruption in case of a server failure or outage by automatically switching the workload to another server in the cluster. A server cluster can also improve performance and reliability, as it can distribute the workload across multiple servers and handle increased traffic or demand. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, section 1.5
NEW QUESTION # 228
A technician has just installed a key-value store on a server and is unable to connect it to the application using port 8291. The technician logged on to the server and needs to determine if the port is listening. Which of the following tools should the technician use?
- A. arp
- B. route
- C. netstat
- D. nslookup
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 229
A systems administrator disabled TLS 1.0 and 1.1, as well as RC4, 3DES, and AES-128 ciphers for TLS 1.2, on a web server. A client now reports being unable to access the web server, but the administrator verifies that the server is online, the web service is running, and other users can reach the server as well.
Which of the following should the administrator recommend the user do FIRST?
- A. Turn off the software firewall
- B. Establish a VPN tunnel between the computer and the web server
- C. Update the web browser to the latest version
- D. Disable antivirus/anti-malware software
Answer: C
Explanation:
Updating the web browser to the latest version is the first action that the user should do when experiencing a connection timeout error after the administrator configured a redirect from HTTP to HTTPS on the web server. Updating the web browser can ensure that it supports the latest security protocols and standards, such as TLS 1.2 or 1.3, which are required for HTTPS connections. If the web browser is outdated or incompatible with the security protocols or standards used by the web server, it may fail to establish a secure connection and result in a connection timeout error. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8
NEW QUESTION # 230
Which of the following would be MOST appropriate for storing sensitive data in a secure storage environment?
- A. ACLs
- B. Encryption
- C. LUN masking
- D. Zoning
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 231
Which of the following cloud services is fully managed?
- A. IoT
- B. Serverless compute
- C. GPU in the cloud
- D. IaaS
- E. SaaS
Answer: A
Explanation:
https://developers.google.com/iot
NEW QUESTION # 232
Which of the following is the BEST way to achieve network throughput on any host with existing NICs?
- A. 802.11i
- B. 802.11n
- C. 802.3x
- D. 802.3ad
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 233
The QA team is testing a newly implemented clinical trial management (CTM) SaaS application that uses a business intelligence application for reporting. The UAT users were instructed to use HTTP and HTTPS.
Refer to the application dataflow:
1A - The end user accesses the application through a web browser to enter and view clinical data.
2A - The CTM application server reads/writes data to/from the database server.
1B - The end user accesses the application through a web browser to run reports on clinical data.
2B - The CTM application server makes a SOAP call on a non-privileged port to the BI application server.
3B - The BI application server gets the data from the database server and presents it to the CTM application server.
When
UAT users try to access the application using https://ctm.app.com or http://ctm.app.com, they get a message stating: "Browser cannot display the webpage." The QA team has raised a ticket to troubleshoot the issue.
INSTRUCTIONS
You are a cloud engineer who is tasked with reviewing the firewall rules as well as virtual network settings.
You should ensure the firewall rules are allowing only the traffic based on the dataflow.
You have already verified the external DNS resolution and NAT are working.
Verify and appropriately configure the VLAN assignments and ACLs. Drag and drop the appropriate VLANs to each tier from the VLAN Tags table. Click on each Firewall to change ACLs as needed.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See explanation below.
Explanation
On firewall 3, change the DENY 0.0.0.0 entry to rule 3 not rule 1.
NEW QUESTION # 234
A cloud administrator updates the syslog forwarder configuration on a local server in production to use a different port. The development team is no longer receiving the audit logs from that server. However, the security team can retrieve and search the logs for the same server. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?
- A. The development team is not looking at the correct server when querying for the logs.
- B. The security team has greater permissions than the development team.
- C. The audit logging service has been disabled on the server.
- D. The development team's syslog server is configured to listen on the wrong port.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 235
Which of the following will provide a systems administrator with the MOST information about potential attacks on a cloud IaaS instance?
- A. HIDS
- B. Network flows
- C. Software firewall
- D. FIM
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) is the tool that will provide the administrator with the most information about potential attacks on a cloud IaaS instance. HIDS is a software or agent that monitors and analyzes the activities and events on a host system or device, such as a cloud instance. HIDS can detect and alert on any malicious or anomalous behavior, such as unauthorized access, malware infection, configuration changes, etc., that may indicate an attack or compromise.
NEW QUESTION # 236
An organization wants to be informed of any security exploits open in the cloud virtual environment that is being hosted in the organization's boundary. Which of the following will need to be performed?
- A. Audit review
- B. Separation of duties
- C. Vulnerability assessment
- D. Tabletop exercise
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 237
A cloud security analyst needs to ensure the web servers in the public subnet allow only secure communications and must remediate any possible issue. The stateful configuration for the public web servers is as follows:
Which Of the following actions Should the analyst take to accomplish the Objective?
- A. Remove rules I, 2. and 5.
- B. Remove rules 3.4. and 5.
- C. Remove rules I, 3, and 4.
- D. Remove rules 2.3. and 4.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is B. Remove rules 1, 3, and 4.
The objective is to ensure the web servers in the public subnet allow only secure communications. This means that only HTTPS traffic should be allowed on port 443, which is the standard port for secure web connections.
HTTPS traffic uses the TCP protocol and encrypts the data between the client and the server.
Rule 1 allows all TCP traffic on any port from any source. This is too permissive and exposes the web servers to potential attacks or unauthorized access. Rule 1 should be removed to restrict the TCP traffic to only port
443.
Rule 3 allows all UDP traffic on any port from any source. UDP is a connectionless protocol that does not guarantee reliable or secure delivery of data. UDP is typically used for streaming media, voice over IP (VoIP), or online gaming, but not for web servers. Rule 3 should be removed to prevent unnecessary or malicious UDP traffic.
Rule 4 allows all ICMP traffic from any source. ICMP is a protocol that is used for diagnostic or control purposes, such as ping or traceroute. ICMP traffic can be used by attackers to scan or probe the network for vulnerabilities or information. Rule 4 should be removed to block ICMP traffic and reduce the attack surface.
Rule 2 allows TCP traffic on port 443 from any source. This is the desired rule that allows secure web communications using HTTPS. Rule 2 should be kept.
Rule 5 denies all other traffic that does not match any of the previous rules. This is the default rule that provides a catch-all protection for the web servers. Rule 5 should be kept.
Therefore, the analyst should remove rules 1, 3, and 4 to accomplish the objective.
NEW QUESTION # 238
A company has hired a security firm to perform a vulnerability assessment of its environment. In the first phase, an engineer needs to scan the network services exposed by the hosts. Which of the following will help achieve this with the LEAST privileges?
- A. An agent-based scan
- B. A credentialed scan
- C. A network-based scan
- D. An application scan
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A network-based scan is a type of vulnerability assessment that scans the network services exposed by the hosts without requiring any credentials or agents. This type of scan will help achieve the objective of scanning the network services with the least privileges, as it does not need any access to the hosts or their internal configurations. A network-based scan can identify open ports, running services, and potential vulnerabilities on the hosts. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.4 Given a scenario, implement security automation and orchestration in a cloud environment.
NEW QUESTION # 239
A cloud security analyst needs to ensure the web servers in the public subnet allow only secure communications and must remediate any possible issue. The stateful configuration for the public web servers is as follows:
Which of the following actions should the analyst take to accomplish the objective?
- A. Remove rules 3, 4, and 5.
- B. Remove rules 1, 2, and 5.
- C. Remove rules 1, 3, and 4.
- D. Remove rules 2, 3, and 4.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
To ensure the web servers in the public subnet allow only secure communications and remediate any possible issue, the analyst should remove rules 1, 2, and 5 from the stateful configuration. These rules are allowing insecure or unnecessary traffic to or from the web servers, which may pose security risks or performance issues. The rules are:
Rule 1: This rule allows inbound traffic on port 80 (HTTP) from any source to any destination. HTTP is an unencrypted and insecure protocol that can expose web traffic to interception, modification, or spoofing. The analyst should remove this rule and use HTTPS (port 443) instead, which encrypts and secures web traffic.
Rule 2: This rule allows outbound traffic on port 25 (SMTP) from any source to any destination. SMTP is a protocol that is used to send email messages. The web servers in the public subnet do not need to send email messages, as this is not their function. The analyst should remove this rule and block outbound SMTP traffic, which may prevent spamming or phishing attacks from compromised web servers.
Rule 5: This rule allows inbound traffic on port 22 (SSH) from any source to any destination. SSH is a protocol that allows remote access and management of systems or devices using a command-line interface. The web servers in the public subnet do not need to allow SSH access from any source, as this may expose them to unauthorized or malicious access. The analyst should remove this rule and restrict SSH access to specific sources, such as the administrator's workstation or a bastion host.
NEW QUESTION # 240
A company needs to migrate the storage system and batch jobs from the local storage system to a public cloud provider. Which of the following accounts will MOST likely be created to run the batch processes?
- A. Service
- B. LDAP
- C. User
- D. Role-based
Answer: A
Explanation:
A service account is what will most likely be created to run the batch processes that migrate the storage system and batch jobs from the local storage system to a public cloud provider. A service account is a special type of account that is used to perform automated tasks or operations on a system or service, such as running scripts, applications, or processes. A service account can provide benefits such as:
Security: A service account can have limited or specific permissions and roles that are required to perform the tasks or operations, which can prevent unauthorized or malicious access or actions.
Efficiency: A service account can run the tasks or operations without any human intervention or interaction, which can save time and effort.
Reliability: A service account can run the tasks or operations consistently and accurately, which can reduce errors or failures.
NEW QUESTION # 241
A company wants to set up a new department using private cloud resources. The new department needs access to sales and financial data, but it should be prohibited from accessing human resources data. Which of the following is the BEST option to configure on the virtual (software-defined) network to meet these requirements?
- A. VPN
- B. GRE
- C. VLAN
- D. VSAN
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 242
An organization will be deploying a web application in a public cloud with two web servers, two database servers, and a load balancer that is accessible over a single public IP.
Taking into account the gateway for this subnet and the potential to add two more web servers, which of the following will meet the minimum IP requirement?
- A. 192.168.1.0/29
- B. 192.168.1.0/28
- C. 192.168.1.0/27
- D. 192.168.1.0/26
Answer: B
Explanation:
A /28 subnet is a subnet that has a network prefix of 28 bits and a host prefix of 4 bits. A /28 subnet can support up to 16 hosts (14 usable hosts) and has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240. Using a /28 subnet can meet the minimum IP requirement for deploying a web application in a public cloud with two web servers, two database servers, and a load balancer that is accessible over a single public IP, taking into account the gateway for this subnet and the potential to add two more web servers. Using a /28 subnet can provide enough host addresses for the current and future web servers, database servers, load balancer, and gateway, as well as allow for some growth or redundancy. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8
NEW QUESTION # 243
A company has decided to scale its e-commerce application from its corporate datacenter to a commercial cloud provider to meet an anticipated increase in demand during an upcoming holiday.
The majority of the application load takes place on the application server under normal conditions. For this reason, the company decides to deploy additional application servers into a commercial cloud provider using the on-premises orchestration engine that installs and configures common software and network configurations.
The remote computing environment is connected to the on-premises datacenter via a site-to-site IPSec tunnel.
The external DNS provider has been configured to use weighted round-robin routing to load balance connections from the Internet.
During testing, the company discovers that only 20% of connections completed successfully.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the network architecture and supporting documents and fulfill these requirements:
Part 1:
Analyze the configuration of the following components: DNS, Firewall 1, Firewall 2, Router 1, Router 2, VPN and Orchestrator Server.
Identify the problematic device(s).
Part 2:
Identify the correct options to provide adequate configuration for hybrid cloud architecture.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Part 1:
Cloud Hybrid Network Diagram
Part 2:
Only select a maximum of TWO options from the multiple choice question
Answer:
Explanation:
See explanation below.
Explanation
Part 1: Router 2
The problematic device is Router 2, which has an incorrect configuration for the IPSec tunnel. The IPSec tunnel is a secure connection between the on-premises datacenter and the cloud provider, which allows the traffic to flow between the two networks. The IPSec tunnel requires both endpoints to have matching parameters, such as the IP addresses, the pre-shared key (PSK), the encryption and authentication algorithms, and the security associations (SAs) .
According to the network diagram and the configuration files, Router 2 has a different PSK and a different address space than Router 1. Router 2 has a PSK of "1234567890", while Router 1 has a PSK of
"0987654321". Router 2 has an address space of 10.0.0.0/8, while Router 1 has an address space of
192.168.0.0/16. These mismatches prevent the IPSec tunnel from establishing and encrypting the traffic between the two networks.
The other devices do not have any obvious errors in their configuration. The DNS provider has two CNAME records that point to the application servers in the cloud provider, with different weights to balance the load.
The firewall rules allow the traffic from and to the application servers on port 80 and port 443, as well as the traffic from and to the VPN server on port 500 and port 4500. The orchestration server has a script that installs and configures the application servers in the cloud provider, using the DHCP server to assign IP addresses.
Part 2:
The correct options to provide adequate configuration for hybrid cloud architecture are:
Update the PSK in Router 2.
Change the address space on Router 2.
These options will fix the IPSec tunnel configuration and allow the traffic to flow between the on-premises datacenter and the cloud provider. The PSK should match the one on Router 1, which is "0987654321". The address space should also match the one on Router 1, which is 192.168.0.0/16.
B. Update the PSK (Pre-shared key in Router2)
E. Change the Address Space on Router2
NEW QUESTION # 244
A company is experiencing latency problems connecting to the cloud. Which of the following should an administrator check FIRST?
- A. Broadcast traffic
- B. Subnetting
- C. Bandwidth utilization
- D. Router ARP tables
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 245
A company has developed a cloud-ready application. Before deployment, an administrator needs to select a deployment technology that provides a high level of portability and is lightweight in terms of footprint and resource requirements.
Which of the following solutions will be BEST to help the administrator achieve the requirements?
- A. Infrastructure as code
- B. Containers
- C. Desktop virtualization
- D. Virtual machines
Answer: B
Explanation:
Containers are a type of deployment technology that packages an application and its dependencies into a lightweight and portable unit that can run on any platform or environment. Containers can provide a high level of portability and are lightweight in terms of footprint and resource requirements, as they do not need a full operating system or hypervisor to run. Containers can also enable faster and easier deployment, scaling, and management of cloud-based applications. Containers are the best solution to help the administrator achieve the requirements for deploying a cloud-ready application. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 11, section 1.6
NEW QUESTION # 246
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