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NEW QUESTION 91
Examine the following ALTER command:
SQL> ALTER DISKGROUP dgroup1 UNDROP DISKS;
What is the purpose of the command?
- A. It mounts disks in the disk group for which the drop-disk operation has already been co pleted
- B. It adds previously dropped disks back into the disk group
- C. It cancels all pending disk drops within the disk group
- D. It restores disks that are being dropped as the result of a DROP DISKGROUP operation.
- E. It restores all the dropped disks in the disk group for which the drop-disk operation has already been completed
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 92
Which three statements are true about adaptive SQL plan management?
- A. It adds new, bettor plans automatically as fixed plans to the baseline.
- B. It automatically performs verification or evolves non-accepted plans, in COMPREHENSIVE mode when they perform better than existing accepted plans.
- C. The non-accepted plans are automatically accepted and become usable by the optimizer if they perform better than the existing accepted plans.
- D. The optimizer always uses the fixed plan, if the fixed plan exists in the plan baseline.
- E. The non-accepted plans in a SQL plan baseline are automatically evolved, in COMPREHENSIVE mode, during the nightly maintenance window and a persistent verification report is generated.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With adaptive SQL plan management, DBAs no longer have to manually run the verification or evolve process for non-accepted plans. When automatic SQL tuning is in COMPREHENSIVE mode, it runs a verification or evolve process for all SQL statements that have non-accepted plans during the nightly maintenance window. If the non-accepted plan performs better than the existing accepted plan (or plans) in the SQL plan baseline, then the plan is automatically accepted and becomes usable by the optimizer.
After the verification is complete, a persistent report is generated detailing how the non-accepted plan performs compared to the accepted plan performance. Because the evolve process is now an AUTOTASK, DBAs can also schedule their own evolve job at end time.
Note:
* The optimizer is able to adapt plans on the fly by predetermining multiple subplans for portions of the plan.
* Adaptive plans, introduced in Oracle Database 12c, enable the optimizer to defer the final plan decision for a statement until execution time. The optimizer instruments its chosen plan (the default plan) with statistics collectors so that it can detect at runtime, if its cardinality estimates differ greatly from the actual number of rows seen by the operations in the plan. If there is a significant difference, then the plan or a portion of it will be automatically adapted to avoid suboptimal performance on the first execution of a SQL statement.
References:
NEW QUESTION 93
You performed an incremental level 0 backup of a database:
RMAN > BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 DATABASE;
To enable block change tracking after the incremental level 0 backup, you issued this command:
SQL > ALTER DATABASE ENABLE BLOCK CHANGE TRACKING USING FILE
â/mydir/rman_change_track.fâ;
To perform an incremental level 1 cumulative backup, you issued this command:
RMAN> BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 1 CUMULATIVE DATABASE;
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
- A. The incremental level 1 backup that immediately follows the enabling of block change tracking will not read the change tracking file to discover changed blocks.
- B. Block change tracking will always reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
- C. More than one database block may be read by an incremental backup for a change made to a single block.
- D. Backup change tracking will sometimes reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
- E. The change tracking file must always be backed up when you perform a full database backup.
Answer: A,C,D
NEW QUESTION 94
SMD is a smallfile locally managed tablespace with manual segment space management.
The SH user receives the following error while inserting data into the sales table:
Which three actions can be taken to enable the user to insert data? (Choose three.)
- A. altering the data file associated with the SMD tablespace to grow automatically
- B. resizing the data file associated with the SMD tablespace to make it larger, provided all data files have not yet reached their maximum size
- C. increasing the space quota on the SMD tablespace for the SH user, provided the files have not yet reached their maximum size
- D. adding a data file to the SMD tablespace, provided the tablespace has not reached its maximum number of file
- E. changing segment space management for the SMD tablespace to automatic
Answer: A,B,D
NEW QUESTION 95
What is the effect of specifying the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE" clause in a
"CREATE DATABASE" statement?
- A. It will create a CDB with root and seed opened and one PDB mounted.
- B. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed read only.
- C. It will create a multitenant container database (CDB) with only the root opened.
- D. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed mounted.
- E. It will create a CDB that must be plugged into an existing CDB.
Answer: B
Explanation:
* The CREATE DATABASE ... ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SQL statement creates a new CDB. If you do not specify the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause, then the newly created database is a non-CDB and can never contain PDBs.
Along with the root (CDB$ROOT), Oracle Database automatically creates a seed PDB (PDB$SEED). The following graphic shows a newly created CDB:
* Creating a PDB
Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and then populating its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB is created when the CDB is created. (Here, we use empty to mean containing no customer-created artifacts.) It is referred to as the seed PDB and has the name PDB$Seed. Every CDB non-negotiably contains a seed PDB; it is non-negotiably always open in read-only mode. This has no conceptual significance; rather, it is just an optimization device. The create PDB operation is implemented as a special case of the clone PDB operation.
NEW QUESTION 96
Examine the following command;
ALTER SYSTEM SET enable_ddl_logging = TRUE;
Which statement is true?
- A. All DDL commands are logged in XML format in the alert directory under the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) home.
- B. All DDL commands are logged in the alert log file.
- C. Only the data definition language (DDL) commands that resulted in errors are logged in the alert log file.
- D. Only DDL commands that resulted in the creation of new segments are logged.
- E. All DDL commands are logged in a different log file that contains DDL statements and their execution dates.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Once DDL logging is turned on, every DDL command will be logged in the alert log file and also the log.xml file.
Note:
*By default Oracle database does not log any DDL operations performed by any user. The default settings for auditing only logs DML operations.
*Oracle 12c DDL Logging - ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING
The first method is by using the enabling a DDL logging feature built into the database. By default it is turned off and you can turn it on by setting the value of ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING initialization parameter to true.
*We can turn it on using the following command. The parameter is dynamic and you can turn it
on/off on the go.
SQL> alter system set ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING=true;
System altered.
Elapsed: 00:00:00.05
SQL>
Once it is turned on, every DDL command will be logged in the alert log file and also the log.xml file.
NEW QUESTION 97
Examine the details of the Top 5 Timed Events in the following Automatic Workloads Repository (AWR)
report:
What are three possible causes for the latch-related wait events?
- A. There are frequent logons and logoffs.
- B. A large number COMMITS are being performed.
- C. The size of the shared pool is too small.
- D. The buffers are being read into the buffer cache, but some other session is changing the buffers.
- E. Cursors are not being shared.
Answer: A,C,E
NEW QUESTION 98
Examine the following command;
ALTER SYSTEM SET enable_ddl_logging = TRUE;
Which statement is true?
- A. Only the data definition language (DDL) commands that resulted in errors are logged in the alert log file.
- B. Only DDL commands that resulted in the creation of new segments are logged.
- C. All DDL commands are logged in the alert log file.
- D. All DDL commands are logged in a different log file that contains DDL statements and their execution dates.
- E. All DDL commands are logged in XML format in the alert directory under the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) home.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION 99
As a user of the ORCL database, you establish a database link to the remote HQ database such that all users in the ORCL database may access tables only from the SCOTT schema in the HQ database. SCOTT's password is TIGER. The service mane "HQ" is used to connect to the remote HQ database.
Which command would you execute to create the database link?
- A. CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING 'HQ';
- B. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING 'HQ';
- C. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO CURRENT_USER USING 'HQ';
- D. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ USING 'HQ';
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 100
Your database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode.
Examine the RMAN configuration parameters:
Examine the command:
RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;
Which two are true? (Choose two.)
- A. It creates a backupset of archive log files
- B. It creates image copies of the archivelogs
- C. It fails because the DELETE INPUT option can be used only with the BACKUP AS COPY command
- D. It fails because the DELETE INPUT option can be used only with the BACKUP AS BACKUPSET command
- E. It creates image copies of the database files
Answer: B,D
NEW QUESTION 101
You set the following parameters in the parameter file and restart the database instance:
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
- A. The instance does not start up because Automatic Memory Management (AMM) is enabled but PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are set to nonzero values.
- B. The MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter is automatically set to 500 MB.
- C. The value of the MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter remains zero for the database instance.
- D. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are automatically set to zero.
- E. The lower limits of the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are set to 90 MB and 270 MB respectively.
Answer: B,E
NEW QUESTION 102
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains some pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute the following command in the root container:
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
- A. The command will create a user in the root container only because the container clause is not used.
- B. The command will, create a common user whose description is contained in the root and each PDB.
- C. The schema for the common user C # # A_ADMIN can be different in each container.
- D. The C # # A_ADMIN user will be able to use the TEMP_TS temporary tablespace only in root.
- E. Schema objects owned by the C# # A_ADMIN common user can be shared across all PDBs.
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION 103
Examine the parameter settings in your local ORCL database:
Examine the parameter settings for the remote SALES database:
As the SYS user, you issue the following command on ORCL:
CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK sales.us.example.com USING 'sales1';
The sales1 tnsnames entry points to the sales database instance.
Which two are requirements to ensure that you can successfully connect by using this database link? (Choose two.)
- A. The REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT initialization parameter should be set to FALSE in the remote database.
- B. The SALES1 net service name should be known to both the local and remote databases.
- C. Local database users who use this database link should have accounts and the required privileges in the remote database.
- D. The GLOBAL_NAMES initialization parameter should be set to FALSE in the ORCL database.
- E. Only the user creating the database link must have an account and the required privileges in the remote database.
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION 104
You wish to enable an audit policy for all database users, except SYS, SYSTEM, and SCOTT.
You issue the following statements:
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYS;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYSTEM;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SCOTT;
For which database users is the audit policy now active?
- A. All users except SYS
- B. All users except SCOTT
- C. All users except sys and SCOTT
- D. All users except sys, system, and SCOTT
Answer: B
Explanation:
If you run multiple AUDIT statements on the same unified audit policy but specify different EXCEPT users, then Oracle
Database uses the last exception user list, not any of the users from the preceding lists. This means the effect of the
earlier AUDIT POLICY ... EXCEPT statements are overridden by the latest AUDIT POLICY ... EXCEPT statement.
Note:
* The ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER policy audits commonly used Oracle Database parameter settings. By default, this
policy is not enabled.
* You can use the keyword ALL to audit all actions. The following example shows how to audit all actions on the
HR.EMPLOYEES table, except actions by user pmulligan.
Example Auditing All Actions on a Table
CREATE AUDIT POLICY all_actions_on_hr_emp_pol
ACTIONS ALL ON HR.EMPLOYEES;
AUDIT POLICY all_actions_on_hr_emp_pol EXCEPT pmulligan;
References:
NEW QUESTION 105
Examine this command executed on a client that is remote from the database server.
SQL> CONNECT hr/hr@orcl
Which two are required for this command to connect the SQLPLUS client to a database instance? (Choose two.)
- A. An orclTNS entry must be defined in the client-side tnsnames.orafile
- B. An orclTNS entry must be defined in the server-side tnsnames.orafile
- C. An orclTNS entry must be defined in the client-side and server-side tnsnames.orafiles
- D. The service name orclmust be defined to the listener
- E. A service name must be defined to the listener that matches the service name in the orclTNS entry
Answer: B,D
NEW QUESTION 106
The following parameter are set for your Oracle 12c database instance:
OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=FALSE
OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=TRUE
You want to manage the SQL plan evolution task manually. Examine the following steps:
1. Set the evolve task parameters.
2. Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
3. Implement the recommendations in the task by using the DBMS_SPM.IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK function.
4. Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
5. Report the task outcome by using the DBMS_SPM.REPORT_EVOLVE_TASK function.
Identify the correct sequence of steps:
- A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
- B. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
- C. 1, 2, 4, 5
- D. 2, 4, 5
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Evolving SQL Plan Baselines
*
2. Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
This function creates an advisor task to prepare the plan evolution of one or more plans for a specified SQL statement.
The input parameters can be a SQL handle, plan name or a list of plan names, time limit, task name, and description.
1. Set the evolve task parameters.
SET_EVOLVE_TASK_PARAMETER
This function updates the value of an evolve task parameter. In this release, the only valid parameter is TIME_LIMIT.
4. Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
This function executes an evolution task. The input parameters can be the task name, execution name, and execution
description. If not specified, the advisor generates the name, which is returned by the function.
3: IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK
This function implements all recommendations for an evolve task. Essentially, this function is equivalent to using
ACCEPT_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE for all recommended plans. Input parameters include task name, plan name, owner
name, and execution name.
5. Report the task outcome by using the DBMS_SPM_EVOLVE_TASK function.
This function displays the results of an evolve task as a CLOB. Input parameters include the task name and section of
the report to include.
References:
NEW QUESTION 107
Examine the parameters for your database instance:
Which three statements are true about the process of automatic optimization by using cardinality feedback?
- A. After the optimizer identifies a query as a re-optimization candidate, statistics collected by the collectors are submitted to the optimizer.
- B. The optimizer automatically changes a plan during subsequent execution of a SQL statement if there is a huge difference in optimizer estimates and execution statistics.
- C. The optimizer does not monitor cardinality feedback if dynamic sampling and multicolumn statistics are enabled.
- D. The optimizer enables monitoring for cardinality feedback after the first execution of a query.
- E. The optimizer can re optimize a query only once using cardinality feedback.
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
C: During the first execution of a SQL statement, an execution plan is generated as usual.
D: if multi-column statistics are not present for the relevant combination of columns, the optimizer can fall back on cardinality feedback.
(not B)* Cardinality feedback. This feature, enabled by default in 11.2, is intended to improve plans for repeated executions.
optimizer_dynamic_sampling optimizer_features_enable
*dynamic sampling or multi-column statistics allow the optimizer to more accurately estimate selectivity of conjunctive predicates.
Note:
*OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING controls the level of dynamic sampling performed by the optimizer. Range of values. 0 to 10
*Cardinality feedback was introduced in Oracle Database 11gR2. The purpose of this feature is to automatically improve plans for queries that are executed repeatedly, for which the optimizer does not estimate cardinalities in the plan properly. The optimizer may misestimate cardinalities for a variety of reasons, such as missing or inaccurate statistics, or complex predicates. Whatever the reason for the misestimate, cardinality feedback may be able to help.
NEW QUESTION 108
You administer an online transaction processing (OLTP) system whose database is stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM) and whose disk group use normal redundancy.
One of the ASM disks goes offline, and is then dropped because it was not brought online before DISK_REPAIR_TIME elapsed.
When the disk is replaced and added back to the disk group, the ensuing rebalance operation is too slow.
Which two recommendations should you make to speed up the rebalance operation if this type of failure happens again?
- A. Specify the statement that adds the disk back to the disk group.
- B. Set the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute to a lower value.
- C. Increase the number of DBWR_IO_SLAVES in the ASM instance.
- D. Increase the number of ASMB processes.
- E. Increase the value of the ASM_POWER_LIMIT parameter.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: ASM_POWER_LIMIT specifies the maximum power on an Automatic Storage Management instance for disk rebalancing. The higher the limit, the faster rebalancing will complete. Lower values will take longer, but consume fewer processing and I/O resources.
D:
* Normally a separate process is fired up to do that rebalance. This will take a certain amount of time. If you want it to happen faster, fire up more processes. You tell ASM it can add more processes by increasing the rebalance power.
* ASMB
ASM Background Process
Communicates with the ASM instance, managing storage and providing statistics Incorrect:
Not B: A higher, not a lower, value of DISK_REPAIR_TIME would be helpful here.
Not E: If you implement database writer I/O slaves by setting the DBWR_IO_SLAVES parameter, you configure a single (master) DBWR process that has slave processes that are subservient to it. In addition, I/O slaves can be used to "simulate" asynchronous I/O on platforms that do not support asynchronous I/O or implement it inefficiently. Database I/O slaves provide non-blocking, asynchronous requests to simulate asynchronous I/O.
NEW QUESTION 109
Which two statements are true about the RMAN validate database command? (Choose two.)
- A. It checks the database for intrablock corruptions.
- B. It can detect corrupt spfiles.
- C. It checks the database for interblock corruptions.
- D. It can detect corrupt pfiles.
- E. It can detect corrupt block change tracking files.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Block corruptions can be divided Into Interblock corruption and intrablock corruption. In intrablock corruption. the corruption occurs within the block itself and can be either physical or logical corruption. In interblock corruption, the corruption occurs between blocks and can only be logical corruption.
(key word) * The VALIDATE command checks for intrablock corruptions only. Only DBVERIFY and the ANALYZE statement detect Interblock corruption.
VALIDATE Command Output **> List of Control File and SPFILE.
File TYPE >>> SPFILE or Control File.
Status >>> OK if no corruption, or FAILED If block corruption is found.
Blocks Failing >>> The number of blocks that fail the corruption check. These
blocks are newly corrupt.
Blocks Examined >>> Total number of blocks in the file.
Oracle' Database Backup and Recovery User's Guide
12c Release 1 (12.1) - 16 Validating Database Files and Backups
NEW QUESTION 110
Examine the details of the Top 5 Timed Events in the following Automatic Workloads Repository (AWR) report:
What are three possible causes for the latch-related wait events?
- A. There are frequent logons and logoffs.
- B. A large number COMMITS are being performed.
- C. The size of the shared pool is too small.
- D. The buffers are being read into the buffer cache, but some other session is changing the buffers.
- E. Cursors are not being shared.
Answer: A,C,E
NEW QUESTION 111
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