2024 Latest CCAK dumps Exam Material with 118 Questions [Q69-Q88]

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2024 Latest CCAK dumps Exam Material with 118 Questions

ISACA CCAK Questions and Answers Guarantee you Oass the Test Easily


The CCAK certification exam covers a range of topics related to cloud auditing, including cloud architecture, governance, risk management, compliance, and auditing processes. CCAK exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge and practical skills in these areas, and to ensure that they have a deep understanding of the challenges and opportunities presented by cloud computing. The CCAK certification is also designed to help professionals develop a strong foundation in cloud auditing, which can be applied across a wide range of industries and sectors.


ISACA CCAK (Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge) Certification Exam is designed to provide a comprehensive understanding of cloud computing and its impact on business and auditing practices. Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge certification is aimed at IT auditors, internal and external auditors, compliance professionals, and risk management professionals who need to be familiar with cloud computing concepts, technologies, and risks.

 

NEW QUESTION # 69
Which of the following would be the MOST critical finding of an application security and DevOps audit?

  • A. Certifications with global security standards specific to cloud are not reviewed, and the impact of noted findings are not assessed.
  • B. The organization is not using a unified framework to integrate cloud compliance with regulatory requirements
  • C. Application architecture and configurations did not consider security measures.
  • D. Outsourced cloud service interruption, breach, or loss of stored data occurred at the cloud service provider.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the web search results, the most critical finding of an application security and DevOps audit would be that the application architecture and configurations did not consider security measures. This finding indicates a serious lack of security by design and security by default principles, which are essential for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the application and its data . If the application architecture and configurations are not secure, they could expose the application to various threats and vulnerabilities, such as unauthorized access, data breaches, denial-of-service attacks, injection attacks, cross-site scripting attacks, and others . This finding could also result in non-compliance with relevant security standards and regulations, such as ISO 27001, PCI DSS, GDPR, and others . Therefore, this finding should be addressed with high priority and urgency by implementing appropriate security measures and controls in the application architecture and configurations.
The other options are not as critical as option B. Option A is a moderate finding that indicates a lack of awareness and assessment of the global security standards specific to cloud, such as ISO 27017, ISO 27018, CSA CCM, NIST SP 800-53, and others . This finding could affect the security and compliance of the cloud services used by the application, but it does not directly impact the application itself. Option C is a severe finding that indicates a major incident that occurred at the cloud service provider level, such as a service interruption, breach, or loss of stored data. This finding could affect the availability, confidentiality, and integrity of the application and its data, but it is not caused by the application itself. Option D is a minor finding that indicates a lack of efficiency and consistency in integrating cloud compliance with regulatory requirements. This finding could affect the compliance posture of the application and its data, but it does not directly impact the security or functionality of the application. References:
[Application Security Best Practices - OWASP]
[DevSecOps: What It Is and How to Get Started - ISACA]
[Cloud Security Standards: What to Expect & What to Negotiate - CSA]
[Cloud Computing Security Audit - ISACA]
[Cloud Computing Incident Response - ISACA]
[Cloud Compliance: A Framework for Using Cloud Services While Maintaining Compliance - ISACA]


NEW QUESTION # 70
Which of the following quantitative measures is KEY for an auditor to review when assessing the implementation of continuous auditing of performance on a cloud system?

  • A. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
  • B. Service Level Objective (SLO)
  • C. Recovery Time Objectives (RTO)
  • D. Recovery Point Objectives (RPO)

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 71
If there are gaps in network logging data,what can you do?

  • A. Nothing. There are simply limitations around the data that can be logged in the cloud.
  • B. Ask the cloud provider to close more ports.
  • C. You can instrument the technology stack with your own logging.
  • D. Ask the cloud provider to open more ports.
  • E. Nothing. The cloud provider must make the information available.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 72
Since CCM allows cloud customers to build a detailed list of requirements and controls to be implemented by the CSP as part of their overall third-party risk management and procurement program, will CCM alone be enough to define all the items to be considered when operating/using cloud services?

  • A. No. CCM must be completed with definitions established by the CSP because of its relevance to service continuity.
  • B. No. CCM can serve as a foundation for a cloud assessment program, but it needs to be completed with requirements applicable to each company.
  • C. Yes. When implemented in the right manner. CCM alone can help to measure, assess and monitor the risk associated with a CSP or a particular service.
  • D. Yes. CCM suffices since it maps a huge library of widely accepted frameworks.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 73
Which of the following BEST ensures adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment?

  • A. Periodic review of the Cl/CD pipeline audit logs to identify any access violations.
  • B. Role-based access controls in the production and development pipelines.
  • C. Separation of production and development pipelines.
  • D. Ensuring segregation of duties in the production and development pipelines.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 74
In volume storage, what method is often used to support resiliency and security?

  • A. hypervisor agents
  • B. random placement
  • C. proxy encryption
  • D. data dispersion
  • E. data rights management

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 75
How should controls be designed by an organization?

  • A. Using the organization's risk management framework
  • B. By the internal audit team
  • C. By the cloud provider
  • D. Using the ISO27001 framework

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 76
Supply chain agreements between CSP and cloud customers should, at minimum, include:

  • A. Policies and procedures of the cloud customer
  • B. Regulatory guidelines impacting the cloud customer
  • C. Audits, assessments and independent verification of compliance certifications with agreement terms
  • D. Organization chart of the CSP

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 77
A certification target helps in the formation of a continuous certification framework by incorporating:

  • A. CSA STAR level 2 attestation.
  • B. the service level objective (SLO) and service qualitative objective (SQO).
  • C. the frequency of evaluating security attributes.
  • D. the scope description and security attributes to be tested.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the blog article "Continuous Auditing and Continuous Certification" by the Cloud Security Alliance, a certification target helps in the formation of a continuous certification framework by incorporating the scope description and security attributes to be tested1 A certification target is a set of security objectives that a cloud service provider (CSP) defines and commits to fulfill as part of the continuous certification process1 Each security objective is associated with a policy that specifies the assessment frequency, such as every four hours, every day, or every week1 A certification target also includes a set of tools that are capable of verifying that the security objectives are met, such as automated scripts, APIs, or third-party services1 The other options are not correct because:
Option A is not correct because the service level objective (SLO) and service qualitative objective (SQO) are not part of the certification target, but rather part of the service level agreement (SLA) between the CSP and the cloud customer. An SLO is a measurable characteristic of the cloud service, such as availability, performance, or reliability. An SQO is a qualitative characteristic of the cloud service, such as security, privacy, or compliance2 The SLA defines the expected level of service and the consequences of not meeting it. The SLA may be used as an input for defining the certification target, but it is not equivalent or synonymous with it.
Option C is not correct because the frequency of evaluating security attributes is not the only component of the certification target, but rather one aspect of it. The frequency of evaluating security attributes is determined by the policy that is associated with each security objective in the certification target. The policy defines how often the security objective should be verified by the tools, such as every four hours, every day, or every week1 However, the frequency alone does not define the certification target, as it also depends on the scope description and the security attributes to be tested.
Option D is not correct because CSA STAR level 2 attestation is not a component of the certification target, but rather a prerequisite for it. CSA STAR level 2 attestation is a third-party independent assessment of the CSP's security posture based on ISO/IEC 27001 and CSA Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)3 CSA STAR level 2 attestation provides a baseline assurance level for the CSP before they can define and implement their certification target for continuous certification. CSA STAR level 2 attestation is also required for CSA STAR level 3 certification, which is based on continuous auditing and continuous certification3 References: 1: Continuous Auditing and Continuous Certification - Cloud Security Alliance 2: Service Level Agreement | CSA 3: Open Certification Framework | CSA - Cloud Security Alliance


NEW QUESTION # 78
The PRIMARY purpose of Open Certification Framework (OCF) for the CSA STAR program is to:

  • A. enable the cloud service provider to prioritize resources to meet its own requirements.
  • B. provide global, accredited, and trusted certification of the cloud service provider.
  • C. ensure understanding of true risk and perceived risk by the cloud service users
  • D. facilitate an effective relationship between the cloud service provider and cloud client.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The primary purpose of the Open Certification Framework (OCF) for the CSA STAR program is to provide global, accredited, and trusted certification of the cloud service provider. According to the CSA website1, the OCF is an industry initiative to allow global, trusted independent evaluation of cloud providers. It is a program for flexible, incremental and multi-layered cloud provider certification and/or attestation according to the Cloud Security Alliance's industry leading security guidance and control framework. The OCF aims to address the gaps within the IT ecosystem that are inhibiting market adoption of secure and reliable cloud services. The OCF also integrates with popular third-party assessment and attestation statements developed within the public accounting community to avoid duplication of effort and cost. The OCF manages the foundation that runs and monitors the CSA STAR Certification program, which is an assurance framework that enables cloud service providers to embed cloud-specific security controls. The STAR Certification program has three levels of assurance, each based on a different type of audit or assessment: Level 1: Self-Assessment, Level 2:
Third-Party Audit, and Level 3: Continuous Auditing. The OCF also oversees the CSA STAR Registry, which is a publicly accessible repository that documents the security controls provided by various cloud computing offerings2. The OCF helps consumers to evaluate and compare their providers' resilience, data protection, privacy capabilities, and service portability. It also helps providers to demonstrate their compliance with industry standards and best practices.
References:
Open Certification Framework Working Group | CSA
STAR | CSA


NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following is a cloud-specific security standard?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
ISO/IEC 15027017 is a cloud-specific security standard that provides guidelines for information security controls applicable to the provision and use of cloud services. It is based on ISO/IEC 27002, which is a general standard for information security management, but it also includes additional controls and implementation guidance that specifically relate to cloud services. ISO/IEC 15027017 is intended to help both cloud service providers and cloud service customers to enhance the security and confidentiality of their cloud environment and to comply with relevant regulatory requirements and industry standards.12 References := ISO/IEC
27017:2015 - Information technology - Security techniques - Code of practice for information security controls based on ISO/IEC 27002 for cloud services1; Cloud Security Standards: ISO, PCI, GDPR and Your Cloud - Exabeam3; ISO/IEC 27017 - Wikipedia2


NEW QUESTION # 80
The BEST way to deliver continuous compliance in a cloud environment is to:

  • A. combine point-in-time assurance approaches with continuous auditing.
  • B. combine point-in-time assurance approaches with continuous monitoring.
  • C. decrease the interval between attestations of compliance.
  • D. increase the frequency of external audits from annual to quarterly.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 81
If a customer management interface is compromised over the public Internet, it can lead to:

  • A. ease of acquisition of cloud services.
  • B. access to the RAM of neighboring cloud computers.
  • C. incomplete wiping of the data.
  • D. computing and data compromise for customers.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Customer management interfaces are the web portals or applications that allow customers to access and manage their cloud services, such as provisioning, monitoring, billing, etc. These interfaces are exposed to the public Internet and may be vulnerable to attacks such as phishing, malware, denial-of-service, or credential theft. If an attacker compromises a customer management interface, they can potentially access and manipulate the customer's cloud resources, data, and configurations, leading to computing and data compromise for customers. This can result in data breaches, service disruptions, unauthorized transactions, or other malicious activities.
References:
Cloud Computing - Security Benefits and Risks | PPT - SlideShare1, slide 10 Cloud Security Risks: The Top 8 According To ENISA - CloudTweaks2, section on Management Interface Compromise Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, section 2.3.2.1 :
https://www.isaca.org/-/media/info/ccak/ccak-study-guide.pdf


NEW QUESTION # 82
The MOST important goal of regression testing is to ensure:

  • A. the system can handle a high number of users.
  • B. new releases do not impact previous stable features.
  • C. the system can be restored after a technical issue.
  • D. the expected outputs are provided by the new features.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the definition of regression testing, it is a type of software testing that confirms that a recent program or code change has not adversely affected existing features1 It involves re-running functional and non-functional tests to ensure that previously developed and tested software still performs as expected after a change2 If the software does not perform as expected, it is called a regression. Therefore, the most important goal of regression testing is to ensure new releases do not impact previous stable features.
The other options are not correct because:
Option A is not correct because the expected outputs are provided by the new features is not the goal of regression testing, but rather the goal of functional testing or acceptance testing. These types of testing aim to verify that the software meets the specified requirements and satisfies the user needs. Regression testing, on the other hand, focuses on checking that the existing features are not broken by the new features3 Option B is not correct because the system can handle a high number of users is not the goal of regression testing, but rather the goal of performance testing or load testing. These types of testing aim to evaluate the behavior and responsiveness of the software under various workloads and conditions. Regression testing, on the other hand, focuses on checking that the software functionality and quality are not degraded by code changes4 Option C is not correct because the system can be restored after a technical issue is not the goal of regression testing, but rather the goal of recovery testing or disaster recovery testing. These types of testing aim to assess the ability of the software to recover from failures or disasters and resume normal operations. Regression testing, on the other hand, focuses on checking that the software does not introduce new failures or defects due to code changes5 References: 1: Wikipedia. Regression testing - Wikipedia. [Online]. Available: 3. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 2:
Katalon. What is Regression Testing? Definition, Tools, Examples - Katalon.
[Online]. Available: 4. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 3: Guru99. What is Functional Testing? Types & Examples - Guru99. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 4: Guru99. What is Performance Testing? Types & Examples - Guru99. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 5: Guru99. What is Recovery Testing?
with Example - Guru99. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023].


NEW QUESTION # 83
Which of the following contract terms is necessary to meet a company's requirement that needs to move data from one CSP to another?

  • A. Transition and data portability
  • B. Drag and Drop
  • C. Lift and shift
  • D. Flexibility to move

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 84
During a review, an IS auditor notes that an organization's marketing department has purchased a cloud-based software application without following the procurement process. What should the auditor do FIRST?

  • A. Escalate to senior management.
  • B. Review the business impact analysis (BIA).
  • C. Review the procurement process.
  • D. Perform a risk analysis.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 85
When deploying an application that was created using the programming language and tools supported by the cloud provider, the MOST appropriate cloud computing model for an organization to adopt is:

  • A. Software as a Service (SaaS).
  • B. Identity as a Service (IDaaS).
  • C. Infrastructure as a Service (laaS).
  • D. Platform as a Service (PaaS).

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 86
When applying the Top Threats Analysis methodology following an incident, what is the scope of the technical impact identification step?

  • A. Determine the impact on the financial, operational, compliance, and reputation of the
  • B. Determine the impact on the physical and environmental security of the organization, excluding informational assets.
  • C. Determine the impact on the controls that were selected by the organization to respond to identified risks.
  • D. Determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
When applying the Top Threats Analysis methodology following an incident, the scope of the technical impact identification step is to determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system. The Top Threats Analysis methodology is a process developed by the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) to help organizations identify, analyze, and mitigate the top threats to cloud computing, as defined in the CSA Top Threats reports. The methodology consists of six steps1:
Scope definition: Define the scope of the analysis, such as the cloud service model, deployment model, and business context.
Threat identification: Identify the relevant threats from the CSA Top Threats reports that may affect the scope of the analysis.
Technical impact identification: Determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system caused by each threat. Confidentiality refers to the protection of data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Integrity refers to the protection of data from unauthorized modification or deletion. Availability refers to the protection of data and services from disruption or denial.
Business impact identification: Determine the impact on the business objectives and operations caused by each threat, such as financial loss, reputational damage, legal liability, or regulatory compliance.
Risk assessment: Assess the likelihood and severity of each threat based on the technical and business impacts, and prioritize the threats according to their risk level.
Risk treatment: Select and implement appropriate risk treatment options for each threat, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer, or acceptance.
The technical impact identification step is important because it helps to measure the extent of damage or harm that each threat can cause to the information system and its components. This step also helps to align the technical impacts with the business impacts and to support the risk assessment and treatment steps.
References := CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 4: A Threat Analysis Methodology for Cloud Using CCM, page
81


NEW QUESTION # 87
A cloud auditor should use statistical sampling rather than judgment (nonstatistical) sampling when:

  • A. the auditor wants to avoid sampling risk.
  • B. generalized audit software is unavailable.
  • C. the probability of error must be objectively quantified.
  • D. the tolerable error rate cannot be determined.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, a cloud auditor should use statistical sampling rather than judgment (nonstatistical) sampling when the probability of error must be objectively quantified1. Statistical sampling is a sampling technique that uses random selection methods and mathematical calculations to draw conclusions about the population from the sample results. Statistical sampling allows the auditor to measure the sampling risk, which is the risk that the sample results do not represent the population, and to express the confidence level and precision of the sample1. Statistical sampling also enables the auditor to estimate the rate of exceptions or errors in the population based on the sample1.
The other options are not valid reasons for using statistical sampling rather than judgment sampling. Option A is irrelevant, as generalized audit software is a tool that can facilitate both statistical and judgment sampling, but it is not a requirement for either technique. Option B is incorrect, as statistical sampling does not avoid sampling risk, but rather measures and controls it. Option D is illogical, as the tolerable error rate is a parameter that must be determined before conducting any sampling technique, whether statistical or judgmental. References:
ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, page 17-18.


NEW QUESTION # 88
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