[2024] Valid PCCN test answers & AACN PCCN exam pdf
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The PCCN certification exam is a computer-based test that assesses the nurse's knowledge and skills in patient assessment, patient monitoring, interventions, and pharmacology. It also evaluates the nurse's ability to provide care to patients with complex medical conditions, such as cardiac and respiratory failure, neurological disorders, and multisystem organ dysfunction.
NEW QUESTION # 191
A 60 year old man has developed some infection while admitted in hospital, which of the following organisms is responsible for this infection commonly?
- A. All of the above
- B. Staphylococcus aureus
- C. Gonnococi
- D. Moraxella cattarhalis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus and methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus are the most common causes of nosocomial infections as they are present in the hospital environment commonly.
NEW QUESTION # 192
When working face-to-face with suicidal clients, the nurse utilizes the following general guidelines except:
- A. Ask the clients how they intend to do the suicide
- B. Directly asking the clients when they are planning to carry out the suicide
- C. Ask about previous suicide attempts
- D. Determine whether or not the clients' suicidal ideations are serious or not
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: The nurse has to consider all suicidal threats seriously. Directly asking about the clients' suicidal intentions will not drive them to suicide. The other options are appropriate interventions when dealing with suicidal clients.
NEW QUESTION # 193
Which of the following are statements made by an individual with decision-making capabilities that describe the care or treatment he or she wishes to receive when no longer competent?
- A. Advance directives
- B. Informed consent documents
- C. Advance notice
- D. Assignment of executor
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Advance directives
Advance directives are statements made by an individual with decision-making capabilities that describe the care or treatment he or she wishes to receive when no longer competent.
Most states recognize two forms of advance directives, the treatment directive, or "living will" and the proxy directive. Proxy directives are also called the durable power of attorney for health care.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 202.
NEW QUESTION # 194
Which of the basic sensory pathways is most often assessed in the progressive care unit?
- A. Light touch
- B. Position
- C. Temperature
- D. Pain
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Light touch
The three basic sensory pathways are:
* Pain/temperature
* Position/vibration
* Light touch
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 301.
NEW QUESTION # 195
All of the following statements made by a patient reflect caring practice by the nurse on the unit except:
- A. "The nurse brought me an extra blanket."
- B. "The nurse took over an hour to bring me a pain pill."
- C. "The nurse took time to answer my questions."
- D. "The nurse is always cheerful."
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: "The nurse took over an hour to bring me a pain pill."
Taking over an hour to deliver medication for pain is not an example of creating a compassionate, supportive and therapeutic environment for the patient.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 194-196.
NEW QUESTION # 196
A 55-year-old type 2 diabetic with severe dementia was started on insulin during her stay in the progressive care unit. She will be discharged with orders for blood glucose monitoring and sliding scale insulin. The patient has a 24-hour a day live-in caregiver who has assisted with her oral medications in the past and who has visited the patient daily in the hospital. One daughter, who is the patient's power of attorney, lives out-of-state and has visited only one time during the patient's five-day stay in the hospital. She is leaving today. Home care nursing has been arranged to provide care for the patient at home following discharge.
Who is it essential for the nurse to include in instructions related to glucose testing and insulin administration?
- A. No instructions need to be given since the patient will be receiving home care nursing services
- B. The power of attorney
- C. The patient
- D. The in-home care giver
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: The in-home caregiver
Teaching strategies need to be planned carefully. When planning for education, assessment of the patient, the nature and severity of the patient's illness, the availability of significant others, and existing environmental barriers need to be assessed.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 15, 20.
NEW QUESTION # 197
Which of the following refers to a technique that uses a combination of analgesics and sedatives to minimize discomfort during a procedure while assuring that the patient can maintain ventilation and communicate throughout the procedure?
- A. Presence sedation
- B. Conscious sedation
- C. Progressive sedation
- D. Critical sedation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Conscious sedation
Conscious sedation or moderate sedation is common in progressive, acute care and special procedure units. Amnesia is anticipated and often desired. The patient's ability to maintain a patent airway is central to the decision related to the use of conscious sedation.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 157.
NEW QUESTION # 198
Insulin therapy is initiated to a client with uncontrolled increase in blood sugar glucose. Which of the following instructions is the most appropriate for the client?
- A. Apply heat to injection areas to relieve discomforts
- B. Administration to scar tissues should be prevented, as it can increase insulin absorption
- C. Injection sites can be used thrice in a 2 to 3-week period
- D. Administration of insulin should be continued during periods of stress and infection
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: Insulin administration must be continued during periods of stress, infection, and surgery. Heat applications to injection sites must be avoided, as it can increase the absorption of insulin, resulting in hypoglycemia; administration to scar tissues is avoided to prevent delay of insulin absorption. Injections sites must not be used more than once during a 2 to 3-week period.
NEW QUESTION # 199
An area of intact skin with non-blanchable erythema is classified by the National Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel (NPUAP) as:
- A. An Unstageable-Unknown depth pressure injury
- B. A deep tissue injury
- C. A Category/Stage 2 pressure injury
- D. A Category/Stage 1 pressure injury
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: A Category/Stage 1 pressure injury
These pressure injuries most often occur over a bony prominence and the area may be firm or soft, painful, cooler or warmer than the surrounding tissue, but the skin remains intact.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 289.
NEW QUESTION # 200
During in-patient care, a man was clinically diagnosed as having Infective Endocarditis. Which of the following is not a necessary part of the investigation?
- A. Echocardiogram
- B. ECG
- C. Cardiac enzymes
- D. Blood cultures
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: Cardiac enzymes is not a necessary part of the investigation. When investigating Infective Endocarditis, cardiac enzymes have no role in diagnosing or monitoring the condition. Cardiac markers are biomarkers measured to evaluate heart function. They are often discussed in the context of myocardial infarction, but other conditions can lead to an elevation in cardiac marker level. Most of the early markers identified were enzymes, and as a result, the term "cardiac enzymes" is sometimes used.
However, not all of the markers currently used are enzymes. For example, in formal usage, troponin would not be listed as a cardiac enzyme.
NEW QUESTION # 201
All of the following statements related to the compensatory stage of shock are true except:
- A. During the compensatory stage of shock, angiotensin I, present in the blood, is converted to angiotensin II in the lungs
- B. During the compensatory stage of shock, renal blood flow is reduced which activates hormonal response
- C. During the compensatory stage of shock, patients become restless and agitated due to respiratory alkalosis
- D. During the compensatory stage of shock, hypovolemia and resultant hypotension lead to activation of the parasympathetic nervous system
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: During the compensatory stage of shock, hypovolemia and resultant hypotension lead to activation of the parasympathetic nervous system.
During the compensatory stage of shock, hypovolemia and resultant hypotension lead to activation of the sympathetic nervous system (not the parasympathetic nervous system). The sympathetic nervous system initiates neural, hormonal and chemical compensatory mechanisms causing peripheral vasoconstriction and elevation of the blood pressure.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 236-237.
NEW QUESTION # 202
All of the following statements related to the clinical presentation of a patient with a thoracic aortic aneurysm are true except:
- A. It is not unusual for the patient's pulses to be different when comparing the right and left peripheral pulses
- B. Signs and symptoms may include hoarseness and a cough
- C. It is not unusual for the patient's blood pressure to be different when comparing readings taken from the right and left arms
- D. The size of the aneurysm, involvement of additional branches, lumen diameter, and the extent of the dissection can be determined by chest x-ray
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: The size of the aneurysm, involvement of additional branches, lumen diameter, and the extent of the dissection can be determined by chest x-ray While an x-ray may show the area of dilation in the aorta, widening of the mediastinum, and mediastinal mass; a CT/MRI is needed to determine the size of the aorta, size of the aneurysm, the extent of a dissection, the involvement of additional arterial branches, lumen diameter, and wall thickness.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 482-483.
NEW QUESTION # 203
All of the following statements related to haloperidol are true except:
- A. It sedates without significant respiratory depression
- B. QTc interval monitoring is required when using haloperidol
- C. It is associated with the development of tolerance
- D. Extrapyramidal reactions to haloperidol are possible
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: It is associated with the development of tolerance
Haloperidol is not associated with the development of dependence tolerance or dependence and it induces sedation without significant respiratory depression. This made it popular in the past. However, it is associated with other potential side effects that must be closely monitored.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 156.
NEW QUESTION # 204
Which of the following statements is true concerning opioids?
- A. They can induce constipation and, in palliative care patients, methylnaltrexone (Relistor) may be given per intramuscular injection
- B. They can worsen oliguria
- C. They have no effect on urine production
- D. They can induce constipation which is best treated by bulk-forming laxatives
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: They have no effect on urine production
Urinary retention can result from increased smooth muscle tone caused by opioids, but they have no effect on urine production and neither cause nor worsen oliguria (the production of abnormally small amounts of urine).
Constipation is a side effect of opioids but prevention through ensuring adequate hydration is the best treatment, along with the administration of stool softeners and stimulant laxatives as needed.
Methylnaltrexone is an appropriate treatment for constipation in palliative care patients, but it is given subcutaneously.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 147-148.
NEW QUESTION # 205
Which of the following statements is true regarding artificial airways?
- A. More nutrition options are available to patients with endotracheal tubes than with tracheostomy tubes
- B. More communication options are available to patients with endotracheal tubes than with tracheostomy tubes
- C. Following the insertion of a tracheostomy or endotracheal tube, the cuff of the tube is inflated so that the pressure is maintained at less than 25 mm Hg
- D. A fenestration is necessary to be able to talk with a tracheostomy tube
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: Following the insertion of a tracheostomy or endotracheal tube, the cuff of the tube is inflated so that the pressure is maintained at less than 25 mm Hg Cuff pressure is maintained at less than 25 mm Hg; it is inflated with just enough air to create an effective seal. Overinflation can lead to obstruction of the distal airway as well as tracheal ischemia, necrosis, and erosion.
Some tracheostomy tubes have an additional opening along the outer tube cannula which is known as a fenestration. This facilitates vocalization by allowing the upward flow of air through the vocal cords, but it is not necessary to be able to talk with a tracheostomy tube. More communication and nutrition options are available to patients with tracheostomy tubes than with endotracheal tubes.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 110, 111.
NEW QUESTION # 206
Which of the following statements is true related to encephalitis?
- A. Pending specialized testing of the cerebrospinal fluid, diagnosis is often presumed and empiric treatment initiated with intravenous vancomycin
- B. It is inflammation of the brain parenchyma
- C. The most common type of encephalitis seen in the United States is caused by West Nile virus
- D. Encephalitis caused by the herpes simplex virus is extremely rare
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: It is inflammation of the brain parenchyma
Encephalitis is inflammation of the brain parenchyma. There are many causes, including arboviruses such as West Nile, but the most common type seen in the United States is encephalitis due to the herpes simplex virus (HSV).
The most common cause of encephalitis is a viral infection and empirical treatment is most often initiated with an antiviral agent pending testing of the cerebrospinal fluid.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 318.
NEW QUESTION # 207
The following statements regarding Brugada syndrome are true, except:
- A. The mainstay of therapy for the condition is an implantable cardioverter defibrillator
- B. It occurs most often in women
- C. It typically manifests in the third or fourth decade of life
- D. It is seen worldwide but is most prevalent in Southeast Asia
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: It occurs most often in women
Brugada syndrome occurs most often in men (8:1 male to female ratio). Quinidine is the only drug that has been shown to be effective in preventing ventricular arrhythmias in patients with Brugada syndrome.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 442-443.
NEW QUESTION # 208
All of the following tests help in diagnosing Myocarditis except:
- A. Endoscopy
- B. Chest x-ray
- C. Viral cultures and PCR
- D. Cardiac catheterization and biopsy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: All of the following tests help in diagnosing Myocarditis except endoscopy. An Endoscopy has no connection to help with diagnosing Myocarditis, but is used as a test for the gastrointestinal tract. Endoscopy typically refers to looking inside the body for medical reasons using an endoscope, an instrument used to examine the interior of a hollow organ or cavity of the body. Unlike most other medical imaging devices, endoscopes are inserted directly into the organ.
NEW QUESTION # 209
The nurse walks into an elderly patient's room and sees the patient's son strike the patient. The most appropriate first response by the nurse is to:
- A. Communicate the risk of assault to other staff
- B. Remove the son from the room
- C. Call security
- D. Administer aide to the patient
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Administer aide to the patient
Administering care to the patient is the nurse's first priority.
The son may or may not leave the room at the nurse's request; therefore, security may or may not need to be notified. The patient's needs are the nurse's greatest concern as the patient's advocate.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 198.
NEW QUESTION # 210
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