VALID PCCN Exam Dumps For Certification Exam Preparation
PCCN Dumps PDF 2023 Strategy Your Preparation Efficiently
AACN PCCN Exam is a comprehensive exam that tests nurses’ knowledge and skills in caring for patients in progressive care and telemetry units. PCCN exam covers a wide range of topics, including cardiovascular and pulmonary systems, neurologic and endocrine systems, and multisystem problems. Nurses who pass the exam demonstrate their ability to provide safe and effective care to patients with complex medical conditions. The AACN PCCN certification is recognized by healthcare facilities and demonstrates a nurse’s commitment to professional development and excellence in patient care.
NEW QUESTION # 274
A potentially life-threatening complication of bariatric surgery that may be difficult to detect, but which can lead to overwhelming sepsis is:
- A. Pulmonary embolism
- B. Anastomotic leakage
- C. Dehydration
- D. Aspiration pneumonia
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Anastomotic leakage
If not recognized and treated early, leakage of gastric contents at the site of anastomosis following bariatric surgery can quickly lead to sepsis and become life-threatening. Some patients with an anastomotic leak may experience fever, left shoulder pain, or abdominal pain but, sometimes, the only sign of a leak may be unexplained tachycardia (faster than normal heart rate at rest).
While a pulmonary embolism is potentially life-threatening, it does not usually quickly lead to sepsis.
Aspiration pneumonia is not a common complication of bariatric surgery, and the signs and symptoms are not typically difficult to detect. Dehydration is usually not a complication of bariatric surgery, and it is usually not difficult to detect.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 361.
NEW QUESTION # 275
Evidence-based practice guidelines related to family interventions that should occur during the intervention stage of the nursing process include all of the following except:
- A. Include family in direct care and decision making as appropriate
- B. Determine a family spokesperson and contact person
- C. Provide information according to family needs
- D. Including assistance with activities of daily living
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Determine what the family sees as priority needs
Determining what the family sees as priority needs should be accomplished in the planning stage of the nursing process rather than in the intervention stage.
In the intervention stage of the nursing process in family interventions the following interventions are appropriate:
* Determine spokesperson and contact person
* Establish optimum methods to contact and communicate with family
* Make referrals for support services as appropriate
* Provide information according to family needs
* Provide a comfortable environment
* Include family in direct care as appropriate
* Encourage family participation and presence during team rounds
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 28.
NEW QUESTION # 276
What is the treatment of choice for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
- A. Insulin
- B. Exercise
- C. Diet control
- D. Oral hypoglycemic
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: Insulin is the most common treatment of choice for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. In Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus, beta cells of the pancreas are destroyed. Since the pancreas produces insulin, the overall insulin level is decreased in the body, resulting in hyperglycemia.
NEW QUESTION # 277
conditions related to aortic aneurysm except:
- A. Aortic dissection refractory to medical therapy
- B. Asymptomatic patients with a fusiform aneurysm 4 cm or more in diameter
- C. Aortic dissection in the ascending aorta
- D. Acute aneurysm rupture
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Asymptomatic patients with a fusiform aneurysm 4 cm or more in diameter Surgery is indicated in asymptomatic patients with a fusiform aneurysm 6 cm or more in diameter (normal diameter is 2.5 to 3 cm).
A fusiform aneurysm is characterized by distention of the entire circumference of the affected portion of the aorta.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 480, 483.
NEW QUESTION # 278
Jehovah's Witnesses can receive all of the following transfusions as part of their religious belief except:
- A. Fractions from red cells
- B. White cells
- C. Plasma
- D. Whole blood
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: Jehova's Witnesses cannot receive Whole blood as transfusions. Whole Blood is the term used in transfusion medicine for human blood from a standard blood donation. The blood is typically combined with an anticoagulant during the collection process, but is generally otherwise unprocessed.
In the US, the capitalized "Whole Blood" means a specific standardized
product for transfusion or further processing, where "whole blood" is any unmodified collected blood.
NEW QUESTION # 279
Which among the following is a good hypothesis?
- A. Wound infections with Staphylococcus aureus were caused by reuse and inadequate sterilization of single use irrigation syringes used during wound care in the ICU
- B. Wound infections are caused by Staphylococcus aureus
- C. Wound infections with Staphylococcus aureus were caused by reuse and inadequate sterilization of single use irrigation syringes
- D. Wound infections were caused by reuse and inadequate sterilization of single use irrigation syringes used during wound care in the ICU
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: A good hypothesis states that wound infections with Staphylococcus aureus were caused by reuse and inadequate sterilization of single use irrigation syringes used during wound care in the ICU.
A hypothesis is the probable cause of the disease/infection based on the laboratory and medical records, epidemiologic study, literature review, and expert opinion.
NEW QUESTION # 280
Current recommendations related to the nutritional needs of acutely ill patients suggest feeding about
25 total calories per kg per day based on the patient's ideal body weight and, in the presence of conditions that increase catabolism, increasing the total calories to 27.5 per kg per day. One serious potential complication of the overfeeding of carbohydrates in an attempt to improve nutrition status is:
- A. Fat overload syndrome
- B. Thrombocyte adhesiveness
- C. Impaired immune response
- D. Hepatic steatosis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Hepatic steatosis
Hepatic steatosis (fatty liver), the synthesis and storage of fat, hyperglycemia, and increased carbon dioxide production increasing minute ventilation are all potential consequences of overfeeding carbohydrates.
The overfeeding of fats can potentially result in impaired immune response; fat overload syndrome with neurologic, cardiac, pulmonary, hepatic and renal dysfunction; thrombocyte adhesiveness, and reticuloendothelial system dysfunction.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 362.
NEW QUESTION # 281
Which of the following agents is correctly administered for variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding to inhibit splanchnic blood flow in a 250 mcg bolus, then continually per IV infusion at 250 mcg per hour?
- A. Octreotide
- B. Propranolol
- C. Somatostatin
- D. Nadolol
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: Somatostatin
Somatostatin reduces portal pressure by constricting splanchnic blood flow. It is administered as a bolus of 250 mcg followed by a continuous IV infusion at 250 mcg/hour.
Octreotide also inhibits splanchnic blood flow and decreases portal and variceal pressures. It is given as a 50 mcg bolus followed by an IV infusion at 25 to 50 mcg/hour. Nadolol and propranolol are nonselective beta-adrenergic blockers. These drugs are administered IV or orally to decrease resting heart rate by 20% or to 55 to 60 beats per minute. Their action is to decrease cardiac output and thereby reduce splanchnic blood flow.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 347.
NEW QUESTION # 282
In which of the following frameworks for ethical analysis is the emphasis on identifying and prioritizing ethical principles?
- A. Duty-based
- B. Care-based
- C. Utilitarian
- D. Principle-based
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Principle-based
In the principle-based framework, the right action is determined through a detached analysis of relevant ethical principles.
When using the care-based framework, the focus is on protecting the relationships at risk in the situation. In the utilitarian framework, the goal is to achieve the best possible outcome of the situation.
In the duty-based framework, the focus is on acting in a manner consistent with primary duties and obligations.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 196.
NEW QUESTION # 283
A patient with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is noted with atrial fibrillation. Agents used to treat this patient's arrhythmia may include all of the following except:
- A. Ibutilide
- B. Flecainide
- C. Procainamide
- D. Verapamil
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Verapamil
Verapamil is often used to slow atrioventricular conduction in atrial fibrillation conducting into the ventricles through the AV node, but it can be extremely dangerous, even lethal when used in the presence of an accessory pathway.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 448.
NEW QUESTION # 284
Autonomic dysreflexia results most often due to:
- A. An overdistended bladder
- B. A full rectum
- C. Pain
- D. Infection
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: An overdistended bladder
Autonomic dysreflexia results from a variety of stimuli; the most common of these is an overdistended bladder.
Other stimuli which can result in autonomic dysreflexia include:
* Infection
* A full rectum
* Skin stimulation
* Pain
* Pressure injuries
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 510.
NEW QUESTION # 285
A 28-year-old female patient is in the progressive care unit following a motor vehicle accident. She wants her seven-year-old son to visit but is concerned he will be frightened by all the equipment. Which of the following actions could demonstrate caring practices by the nurse?
- A. Tell the patient to delay her son's visit until there is less equipment to worry about
- B. Offer to explain to the child what to expect when he sees his mother
- C. Tell the patient it would be better for her child not to visit
- D. Tell the patient not to worry; her son has probably viewed worse things on video games
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Offer to explain to the child what to expect when he sees his mother This response reflects family-centered caring.
Telling the patient not to worry invalidates her concerns and draws into question her parenting skills.
Advising against her son's visit or suggesting it be delayed does not support family-centered care.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 28.
NEW QUESTION # 286
Venturi masks are often useful in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and hypercapnia because the clinician can titrate the Pao2 to minimize which of the following?
- A. Carbon dioxide retention
- B. The risk of bleeding
- C. Humidification loss
- D. Tidal volume
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Carbon dioxide retention
The Venturi mask is an example of a high-flow mask system that can deliver precise concentrations of oxygen. They are often useful in patients with COPD and hypercapnia because the clinician can titrate the Pao2 to minimize carbon dioxide retention.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 114.
NEW QUESTION # 287
The Medicare and Medicaid Electronic Health Record (EHR) Incentive Program, established by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, began offering incentives for hospitals and providers who demonstrated meaningful use of EHRs in:
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: 2011
The incentives offered by this program led to the rapid replacement of traditional paper charting with electronic documentation in most health care settings. Electronic health records (EHR) are able to improve the quality of care for patients by facilitating communication, but not all systems were designed around health care workflow, and implementation of the systems became a source of moral distress for many providers.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 206.
NEW QUESTION # 288
All of the following statements related to hemodialysis are true except:
- A. Both arterial and venous pressures are monitored in the dialysis circuitry
- B. 14- or 16-gauge needles are used in coupling the dialysis catheter and the dialysis circuitry
- C. When a synthetic graft is used, only one needle is required to "couple" the dialysis catheter and the dialysis circuitry, using clean technique
- D. Coupling requires strict adherence to sterile technique
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: When a synthetic graft is used, only one needle is required to "couple" the dialysis catheter and the dialysis circuitry, using clean technique To initiate dialysis through a permanent access device, two 14- or 16-gauge needles are inserted into the dilated vein of the fistula or the graft portion of the synthetic graft. One needle is considered arterial, used for blood outflow, and the other is considered venous, used for blood return. Coupling is performed using sterile technique.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 383.
NEW QUESTION # 289
The most common cause of tracheal deviation seen on chest x-ray is:
- A. Pleural effusion
- B. Pneumothorax
- C. Atelectasis
- D. Emphysema
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Pneumothorax
On chest x-ray, the trachea should appear midline, with the carina seen at the level of the aortic knob or second intercostal space. Pneumothorax, which is the most common cause of tracheal deviation, causes a mediastinal and tracheal shift to the area away from the pneumothorax.
Pleural effusion and atelectasis can also cause tracheal deviation from midline; however, pneumothorax is the most common cause. Emphysema does not typically cause tracheal deviation. More common chest x-ray findings in emphysema include hyperinflated lungs, flattened diaphragm, and widened intercostal spaces.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 247-248.
NEW QUESTION # 290
Typical treatment for the management of acute respiratory failure patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder includes:
- A. Lower than usual doses of short-acting beta-agonists with or without anticholinergics
- B. Limiting fluid intake
- C. Routine chest physiotherapy
- D. Patient mobilization, coughing, and heated, moist aerosolization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Patient mobilization, coughing, and heated, moist aerosolization The routine use of chest physiotherapy is not recommended. Adequate hydration is needed to improve the removal of secretions. Higher than the usual doses of short-acting beta-agonists, with or without anticholinergics, may be required until the precipitating event is resolved.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 259-260.
NEW QUESTION # 291
A woman presented to medical emergency department with diastolic pressure of 140 mm of Hg. What is the most likely condition?
- A. Hypertensive urgency
- B. Hypertensive emergency
- C. Essential hypertension
- D. Secondary hypertension
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: The most likely condition showing diastolic pressure of 140 mm of Hg is hypertensive emergency, because when diastolic pressure is more than 120 mm of Hg, it is called hypertensive emergency.
NEW QUESTION # 292
Signs and symptoms of cocaine overdose include which of the following?
- A. Hyperexcitability, nausea/vomiting/abdominal pain, fever
- B. Respiratory depression, hypotension, miosis
- C. Seizures, dysrhythmias, heart failure
- D. Tinnitus, vertigo, hyperthermia
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Hyperexcitability, nausea/vomiting/abdominal pain, fever Seizures, dysrhythmias, and heart failure are signs of an overdose of tricyclics. Tinnitus, vertigo, and hyperthermia are signs of an overdose of salicylates. Respiratory depression, hypotension, and miosis are signs of opioid overdose.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 288.
NEW QUESTION # 293
A physician has ordered cardiac catheterization for a patient in the progressive care unit. After explaining the procedure, the patient, who is alert, oriented, and competent to make decisions is refusing to give informed consent.
The nurse's role is to:
- A. Threaten to call the physician
- B. Have the consent signed by the patient's spouse, since she has power of attorney
- C. Try to get the patient to change his mind by providing more information
- D. Respect and support the patient's decision
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Respect and support the patient's decision
The nurse must respect the competent patient's choice and support the patient's decisions even if the decision is contrary to the judgments of the health care team.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 195, 198.
NEW QUESTION # 294
Chest radiography provides visualization of the heart and lungs, making this an essential tool in respiratory assessment. Which of the following statements is correct related to chest radiography?
- A. The skeletal thorax normally appears black on chest films
- B. On a normal chest x-ray, the diaphragm appears gray and dome-shaped with the left dome 1 to 3 cm higher than the right dome
- C. During an x-ray, only a few electromagnetic rays are absorbed by air; all rays are absorbed by bone or metal
- D. Healthy lungs appear mostly white on chest films
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: During an x-ray, only a few electromagnetic rays are absorbed by air; all rays are absorbed by bone or metal X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation utilized by x-ray imaging machines to create radiographic images. Only a few of these rays are absorbed by air, whereas all x-rays are absorbed by solid substances such as bone or metal. As the beam of the x-ray passes through the patient, the tissues which are denser absorb more of the beam. Less of the beam is absorbed by less-dense tissues.
Since the lungs are primarily sacs of gas or ar, healthy lungs appear mostly black on chest films. Since bone absorbs the most x-rays (is very dense), the skeletal thorax normally appears white on chest films.
The diaphragm appears dark or gray and is dome-shaped; however, the right dome is higher than the left.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 245-246.
NEW QUESTION # 295
The nurse is assessing a client who, admitted due to difficulty breathing, underwent a bronchoscopy. On assessment, the nurse notes absence of the gag reflex. Which of the following interventions is the least appropriate for the client?
- A. Re-assess the client's gag reflex in 2 hours
- B. Withhold oral medications
- C. Assist the client in upright position
- D. Limit oral fluid intake to 1000 mL per day
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: A client must not be given anything by mouth until the gag reflex returns. The other options are appropriate for a post-bronchoscopy client.
NEW QUESTION # 296
What investigation would you carry out after stabilizing a patient of head trauma with altered state of consciousness?
- A. Blood CP
- B. CT scan brain
- C. Chest X-ray
- D. ESR
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: After stabilizing a patient of head trauma with altered state of consciousness, the CT brain scan is the most important investigation to carry out, since this can help reveal any concealed intracranial bleed due to trauma.
NEW QUESTION # 297
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AACN PCCN Exam is a certification exam that is designed for nurses who work in progressive care units. PCCN exam tests the knowledge and skills of nurses who work with acutely ill adult patients. Nurses who pass the AACN PCCN Exam are recognized as experts in their field and are eligible for higher salaries and more job opportunities.
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